Results 61 - 80 of 3692
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Results from: Notes Author: Makarios Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
61 | Tithing before Mosaic Law | Gen 14:20 | Makarios | 217781 | ||
Greetings again Azure! Good question about the intentions of Abram and how they contrast with those of Jacob in Genesis 28:20-22. "Then Jacob made a vow: "If God will be with me and watch over me on this journey, if He provides me with food to eat and clothing to wear, and if I return safely to my father's house, then the LORD will be my God. This stone that I have set up as a marker will be God's house, and I will give to You a tenth of all that You give me." (Genesis 28:20-22, HCSB) "Jacob is thought to have been 77 at this time. He was 15 when Abraham died. Was 84 when he married. 90 when Joseph was born. 98 when he returned to Canaan. 120 when Isaac died. 130 when he went to Egypt. 147 when he died." (1) "His first 77 years were spent in Canaan. The next 20 in Haran. Then 33 in Canaan. The last 17 in Egypt." (1) Here is some commentary on Jacob's intentions: "28:20 vow: Although Jacob made a conditional promise to be faithful to God, he based it on God's promises to him (v.15)." (2) "28:22 a tenth." ..."Jacob may have been bargaining with God, as if to buy His favor rather than purely worshiping God with his gift, but it is best to translate the "if" (v.20) as "since" and see Jacob's vow and offering as genuine worship based on confidence in God's promise (vv. 13-15)." (3) "28:20-22 Was Jacob trying to bargain with God? It is possible that he, in his ignorance of how to worship and serve God, treated God like a servant who would perform a service for a tip. More likely, Jacob was not bargaining but pledging his future to God. He may have been saying, in effect, "Because you have blessed me, I will follow you." Whether Jacob was bargaining or pledging, God blessed him. But God also had some difficult lessons for Jacob to learn." (4) "28:10-22 Because Jacob's vision at Bethel was his closest encounter with God up to this point in his life, he was convinced this place was unique. For him it was "the house of God," (the literal meaning of Bethel), and "the gate of heaven" (v. 17). At this stage in God's progressive revelation, he could not see that no earthly spot could play this role (Acts 7:48-50). Like his brother Esau, Jacob had not been a man of faith. But, even though the conditions he states toward the Lord (Gn 28:20-22) fall short of true faith, they represent a step in the right direction." (5) When Abram gave his tithe to Melchizedek (Genesis 14:20; Heb. 7:1-10), it was a purely voluntary exclamation of gratitude on Abram's part. In contrast, Jacob's "pledge to give a tithe" in Genesis 28:20-22 could have been motivated by what he knew from other cultures (and other gods), from what he had been told about his grandfather's tithe, from a possible 'bargain with God,' or, from his own attempt at defining his own faith at that point, and what God meant/would mean to him at that time. When contrasting these two tithes (Abram and Jacob), it is good to keep in mind that Abram and Jacob were in completely different places in their faith with God when they made these tithes, which could help explain the gratitude of Abram's tithe and the "pledge of a tithe" from Jacob. Another place in the Bible where you can find an example of a pre-Mosaic tithe is with Joseph and the Egyptians in Genesis 47:24-26 where one fifth was given to Pharaoh. Blessings to you, Makarios (1) pg. 63, Halley's Bible Handbook, an abbreviated Bible commentary by Henry H. Halley, copyright 1962 by Halley's Bible Handbook, Inc., Zondervan Publishing House, Minneapolis, MN (2) pg. 51, The NKJV Study Bible, copyright 2007 by Thomas Nelson, Inc. (3) pg. 56, The MacArthur Study Bible, copyright 1997 Word Publishing (4) pg. 54, Life Application Study Bible, New Living Translation, copyright 2004 by Tyndale House Publishers, Inc. (5) pg. 47, The Apologetics Study Bible, copyright 2007 by Holman Bible Publishers |
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62 | Rev. 15:2-4 Why am I going through this? | Rev 15:3 | Makarios | 217723 | ||
Study on Revelation 15:2-4: Why am I going the problems that I am? I recently did a study in Revelation 15:2-4 that helps to provide an answer when we say "Why me?" or "Why am I going through this" when we have various problems in life. Revelation 15:2-4 "And I saw something like a sea of glass mingled with fire, and those who have the victory over the beast, over his image and over his mark and over the number of his name, standing on the sea of glass, having harps of God. They sing the song of Moses, the servant of God, and the song of the Lamb, saying: Great and marvelous are Your works, Lord God Almighty! Just and true are Your ways, O King of the saints! Who shall not fear You, O Lord, and glorify Your name? For You alone are holy. For all nations shall come and worship before You, For Your judgments have been manifested." (NKJV) This song brings to light several principles: 1) There is no problem that is too big for God. 2) God is totally just. 3) God is totally and completely Holy. 4) Everything that God has created will someday worship God. So you might ask "Why me?" or "Why am I going through this mess?" God is completely sovereign, completely just and Holy, completely in control. To the believer, this is of profound significance as we go through the problems that we do on a daily basis! Cross references to principles: (1) Deut. 7:21; 10:17,21; 28:58; Nehemiah 1:5; 9:32; Job 37:22; Psalm 65:5; 66:3,5; 68:35; 89:7; Dan. 9:4 (2) Deut. 32:3-4; Psalm 9:8; 96:13; 98:9; Acts 10:42; 17:31; Romans 2:16 (3) Lev. 11:44-45; 1 Peter 1:16; 1 John 1:5; Rev. 4:8 (4) Psalm 86:9; Isaiah 45:23; 66:23; Romans 14:11; Phil. 2:10 Blessings to you, Makarios |
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63 | Eternal life promised by God? | Titus 1:2 | Makarios | 217658 | ||
Greetings David, You ask "Are you saying that Christ (in glory, prior to His Incarnation) is Himself the promise of eternal life?" My Answer: Yes! Makarios |
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64 | The Suffering of the Church | Acts 8:2 | Makarios | 217622 | ||
Greetings Mike! Thank you for clarifying that you believe that "all suffering is evil" because "suffering in itself is a byproduct of sin and death and that is not from God." But consider this: "Our necks are under persecution: we labour, and have no rest." Lamentations 5:5, KJV The book of Lamentations is a 5 poem expression of grief over the fall of Jerusalem, and the suffering that resulted from the loss of a nation. If "all suffering is evil," then would God have ordained it for Israel (2 Chronicles 36:20-21)? Perhaps the book of Job is more instructive. If "all suffering is evil" and a "byproduct of sin and death that is not from God," then why did God allow Job to go through so much suffering and pain if Job had a clear conscience (Job 31)? Blessings to you, Makarios |
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65 | what does the bible say about widows? | Ex 22:22 | Makarios | 217621 | ||
Greetings Vintage68, Good question! 1 Timothy 5:3 says "Honor widows who are truly widows" - therefore, invest the church's resources into those widows who do not already have family to lean on. If a widow has family, then they should be ministering to the widows in need if they are not already, rather than the church's resources be unnecessarily burdened (1 Tim. 5:16). Other qualifications for the church to take leadership of the welfare of widows is that the widow be over the age of 60 (1 Tim. 5:9) and have a reputation for good works (1 Tim. 5:10). But any widow under the age of 60 is encouraged to marry again (1 Tim. 5:14). When I stated that "unmarried widows can be married again," I phrased that in such a way as to allow the state of a remarried widow. A remarried widow (now the wife of someone) can always say that she was, at one time, a widow, and perhaps still hold to the status that she is the widow of some gentleman (perhaps pointing out that status due to negotiations for property rights), even though now remarried. But yes, 1 Cor. 7:8-9 and 1 Tim. 5:14 stress the possibility that a married woman who saw her spouse die could be married again, and this possibility that is pointed out in scripture is separate from the overall instructions given to the church in 1 Tim. 5, since it is clear that those instructions are for widows who are not married, have no hope of being married again, and have no other help but the church. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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66 | The Suffering of the Church | Acts 8:2 | Makarios | 217602 | ||
Greetings Mike, Others have posted some great replies here to your statement that "suffering in all forms is evil and satanic" which I hope you are able to retract: Acts 14:22 "strengthening the souls of the disciples, encouraging them to continue in the faith, and saying, "Through many tribulations we must enter the kingdom of God." Romans 5:3 "And not only this, but we also exult in our tribulations, knowing that tribulation brings about perseverance;" Ephesians 3:13 "Therefore I ask you not to lose heart at my tribulations on your behalf, for they are your glory." Hebrews 10:32-33 "But remember the former days, when, after being enlightened, you endured a great conflict of sufferings, partly by being made a public spectacle through reproaches and tribulations, and partly by becoming sharers with those who were so treated. For you showed sympathy to the prisoners and accepted joyfully the seizure of your property, knowing that you have for yourselves a better possession and a lasting one." Mark 10:29-30 "Jesus said, "Truly I say to you, there is no one who has left house or brothers or sisters or mother or father or children or farms, for My sake and for the gospel's sake, but that he will receive a hundred times as much now in the present age, houses and brothers and sisters and mothers and children and farms, along with persecutions; and in the age to come, eternal life." Blessings to you, Makarios |
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67 | Boasting in the Name? | Ps 20:7 | Makarios | 217555 | ||
Greetings Mommapbs! Thank you for your note! It is always a blessing for me to know that the support that we offer here helps in such mighty ways - like with the cancer support group that you are involved with. Thank you again for reminding me, once again, that these posts have been of some help, in some way. Your Brother in Christ, Makarios |
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68 | Parts of Burnt Offering and Mark 12v30? | Hebrews | Makarios | 217530 | ||
Greetings David! You have chosen an interesting way to study Leviticus 1:4-9 in conjunction with Mark 12:30; the imagery of the parts of the burnt offering could be expanded into a NT study: The head - (Lev. 1:4) - "the laying on of the offerer's hand signified acceptance and identification of himself with his offering. In figure it answers to the Christian's faith accepting and identifying himself with Christ (Rom. 4:5; 6:3-11). The believer is justified by faith, and his faith is reckoned for righteousness because his faith identifies him with Christ, who died as his sin offering (2 Cor. 5:21; 1 Pet. 2:24)." (1) The fat - (Lev. 1:8) - "That is, that which burns most quickly - devotedness, zeal. Lev. 3:3-4; 7:23-24." (1) "The burning of the fat and the kidneys on the altar would have produced an acrid odor. Yet because sin was consumed, these sacrifices are described at times as "a sweet aroma" to the Lord (see [Exodus] 29:18). .." (3) The inwards and legs - (Lev. 1:9) - see Exodus 12:9; 29:13,17,22 "The whole sacrifice was to be burned up (v. 9), including the head, legs, fat and inner organs. It is therefore sometimes called a holocaust offering (holo means "whole," and caust means "burnt"). When a bull was offered, however, the officiating priest could keep its hide (7:8)." (2) The hide, or skin, was given to the priest. The NAB actually puts the word "holocaust" into the scriptural text. The fire - (Lev. 1:8) - "Essentially this is a symbol of God's holiness (Heb. 12:29)" ... "wholly consumes the sin offering." (1) John the Baptist said "He who is coming after me will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire" and "burn up the chaff with unquenchable fire" (Matt. 3:11-12; Mark 9:49) - demonstrated in a dramatic way at Pentecost (Acts 1:5,8; 2:1-13; 11:16). As for Mark 12:30 (see Matthew 22:37-38 and Deut. 6:4-5), the love of God must engage (or consume) the total person (heart, soul, mind). It is of interesting comparison that the sin offering in Lev. 1:4-9 would be wholly consumed by fire: what was represented symbolically through the sin offerings is what happens in reality when we present ourselves as living offerings (Rom. 12:1-2) after being convicted (John 16:8-11) and regenerated (Titus 3:5; John 3:3-7), which results in a new nature (2 Cor. 5:17) and new life (1 John 2:29). Blessings to you, Makarios (1) pg. 150, The Scofield Study Bible, New King James Version, copyright 2002 by Oxford University Press, Inc. (2) pg. 136, The Zondervan NASB Study Bible, cppyright 1999 by the Zondervan Corporation. (3) pg. 138, NKJV Study Bible, copyright 2007 by Thomas Nelson, Inc. |
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69 | Un-repented Sin | Heb 6:6 | Makarios | 217513 | ||
Greetings Vintage68! You ask "What would happen to these Christians if they died, before they could confess those sins?" "God's ability to save is not limited by man's sinfulness. In fact, every person, before he accepts Jesus Christ as Savior, is in total rebellion against God, though sinfulness may not manifest itself with equal intensity in every person. The Apostle John taught believers, "If any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; and He is the propitiation (satisfaction) for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world" (1 John 2:1-2). The Bible is filled with examples of people who received forgiveness for all manner of wickedness, for "the Lord's hand is not short that it cannot save" (Isaiah 59:1). God's boundless grace prompted Paul to exclaim, "When sin increased, grace abounded all the more" (Romans 5:20). And Paul's personal testimony showed that God's redemptive purpose and power were not limited by man's sinfulness, thus encouraging those who feared they had sinned too grievously to be saved (1 Timothy 1:15-16)." (1) "While God's ability to save is boundless, the Bible clearly shows that there are certain conditions under which He will not save. For instance, God will not save those who neglect or despise Christ's sacrifice in an effort to find an alternate salvation plan. "For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins" (Hebrews 10:26). This warning pertains to those who "trample under foot the Son of God" and regard His blood as unclean (Hebrews 10:29). God the Father has appointed His Son's sacrifice as the sole way of salvation and will not grant salvation to those who seek it by any other means." (1) Hebrews 7:27 "who does not need daily, like those high priests, to offer up sacrifices, first for His own sins and then for the sins of the people, because this He did once for all when He offered up Himself." When Christ died, he took upon Himself all of the sins that we, the redeemed, have committed or ever will commit. It was all settled, right then and there - at the Cross! We do have a duty as Christians to continually acknowledge sin (1 John 1:9), but fulfilling the duty of confession neither gives us license to sin nor does it condemn us if we die before having the chance to acknowledge, confess and turn from it, because the sacrifice of Jesus on the cross satisfied the demands of God's holiness for the punishment of all sin (see Romans 1:18, 2 Cor. 5:21, Ephesians 2:3). Blessings to you, Makarios (1) pg. 244, "The Bible Has the Answer" by Henry M. Morris and Martin E. Clark, copyright 1976, 1987 by Master Books, Inc. |
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70 | Un-repented Sin | Heb 6:6 | Makarios | 217512 | ||
Greetings Doc, Excellent post and verse - 1 Peter 3:18! Christ died once for all sins, whether they be committed before we are saved or 'unconfessed' when we die: Romans 6:10 "For the death that He died, He died to sin once for all; but the life that He lives, He lives to God." Hebrews 7:27 "who does not need daily, like those high priests, to offer up sacrifices, first for His own sins and then for the sins of the people, because this He did once for all when He offered up Himself" Hebrews 9:12 "and not through the blood of goats and calves, but through His own blood, He entered the holy place once for all, having obtained eternal redemption." Hebrews 10:10 "By this will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all." Jude 1:3 "Beloved, while I was making every effort to write you about our common salvation, I felt the necessity to write to you appealing that you contend earnestly for the faith which was once for all handed down to the saints." We just keep coming back again and again to Hebrews 7-10 don't we? :-) Blessings to you, Makarios |
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71 | where was satan during the flood | Gen 6:17 | Makarios | 217509 | ||
Greetings Searcher56, One of the best things you bring to the Forum is that you have a special knack of "Searching" Scripture for occurrences of things that others of us might not find right away. :-) So, you are aptly named "Searcher." Your brother in Christ, Makarios |
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72 | Difference in Translations - Rev. 13:10 | Rev 13:10 | Makarios | 217488 | ||
Difference in Translations - Revelation 13:10 NASB 77/95: "If anyone is destined for captivity, to captivity he goes; if anyone kills with the sword, with the sword he must be killed. Here is the perseverance and the faith of the saints." NIV: "If anyone is to go into captivity, into captivity he will go. If anyone is to be killed with the sword, with the sword he will be killed. This calls for patient endurance and faithfulness on the part of the saints." NKJV: "He who leads into captivity shall go into captivity; he who kills with the sword must be killed with the sword. Here is the patience and the faith of the saints." HCSB: "If anyone is destined for captivity, into captivity he goes. If anyone is to be killed with a sword, with a sword he will be killed. Here is the endurance and the faith of the saints." ESV: "If anyone is to be taken captive, to captivity he goes; if anyone is to be slain with the sword, with the sword must he be slain. Here is a call for the endurance and faith of the saints." NET Bible: "If anyone is meant for captivity, into captivity he will go. If anyone is to be killed by the sword, [1] then by the sword he must be killed. This [2] requires steadfast endurance [3] and faith from the saints." (*) Textual Notes from The Net Bible (http://net.bible.org/) [1] Many mss read "if anyone will kill with the sword, it is necessary for him to be killed with the sword". Other mss are similar except that they read a present tense "kills" in this sentence. Both of these variants may be regarded as essentially saying the same thing. On the other hand, codex A reads “if anyone is to be killed by the sword, he is to be killed by the sword”. Thus the first two variants convey the idea of retribution, while the last variant, supported by codex A, does not. (There are actually a dozen variants here, evidence that scribes found the original text quite difficult. Only the most important variants are discussed in this note.) The first two variants seem to be in line with Jesus’ comments in Matt 26:52: “everyone who takes up the sword will die by the sword.” The last variant, however, seems to be taking up an idea found in Jer 15:2: “Those destined for death, to death; those for the sword, to the sword; those for starvation, to starvation; those for captivity, to captivity.” Though G. B. Caird, Revelation (HNTC), 169-70, gives four arguments in favor of the first reading (i.e., “whoever kills with the sword must with the sword be killed”), the arguments he puts forward can be read equally as well to support the latter alternative. In the end, the reading in codex A seems to be original. The fact that this sentence seems to be in parallel with 10a (which simply focuses on God’s will and suffering passively and is therefore akin to the reading in codex A), and that it most likely gave rise to the others as the most difficult reading, argues for its authenticity. [2] On Jwde here, BDAG 1101 s.v. 2 states: “a ref. to a present event, object, or circumstance, in this case, at this point, on this occasion, under these circumstances…in this case moreover 1 Cor 4:2. Rev 13:18; cf. 17:9. 13:10; 14:12.” [3] Or “perseverance.” After reading the above, I prefer the NKJV rendering of simplicity over the others, but I thought I would share this study and possibly learn how other Greek experts view this verse as to why it is rendered so differently in the NIV (kills/be killed and Here is the/This is a call for) as compared to the NKVJ and NASB, for instance. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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73 | A Law of Faith - Romans 3:27 | Rom 3:27 | Makarios | 217486 | ||
What does "a law of faith" mean? "Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith." (Romans 3:27, KJV) Commentary: Romans 3:27: "(11) An argument to prove this conclusion, that we are justified by faith without works, taken from the result of justification. The result of justification is the glory of God alone: therefore we are justified by faith without works: for if we were justified either by our own works alone, or partly by faith and partly by works, the glory of this justification would not be wholly given to God. (e) By what doctrine? Now the doctrine of works has this condition attached to it, that is, "if you do", and the doctrine of faith has this condition, that is, "if you believe"." (Geneva Bible Translation Notes) (*) "The law of faith. The rule, or arrangement which proclaims that we have no merit; that we are lost sinners; and that we are to be justified only by faith." (Barnes New Testament Notes) (*) "Romans 3:27: Where is the boasting then of the Jew against the gentile? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay - This would have left room for boasting. But by the law of faith - Since this requires all, without distinction, to apply as guilty and helpless sinners, to the free mercy of God in Christ. The law of faith is that divine constitution which makes faith, not works, the condition of acceptance." (John Wesley's Notes on the Bible) (*) "3, 27-31: People cannot boast of their own holiness, since it is God's free gift (27), both to the Jew who practices circumcision out of faith and to the Gentile who accepts faith without the Old Testament religious culture symbolized by circumcision (29-30)." (1) "3, 27: Principle of faith: literally, "law of faith." Paul is fond of wordplay involving the term "law"; cf Rom 7, 21.23; 8, 2. Since "law" in Greek may also connote "custom" or "principle," his readers and hearers would have sensed no contradiction in the use of the term after the negative statement concerning law in v 20." (1) "3:27 law of faith: Paul uses a wordplay here: The "law," or the standard of God, is commonly associated with "works." But here Paul says that a person can only boast in the standard of God that excludes human "works." This "law" is faith (John 6:28,29). Thus the Jews who were boasting in their knowledge of the law and their adherence to it were silenced by Paul (2:17,23). The law could only condemn them, but God was the One who saved them. Therefore their boast should only be in Him." (2) --Makarios Numerated Sources: (1) pg. 227 [NT], Saint Joseph Edition of The New American Bible, copyright 1992 by Catholic Book Publishing Corp., New York. (2) pg. 1771, NKJV Study Bible, Second Edition, copyright 2007 by Thomas Nelson, Inc. (*) posted with the help of The Sword Project Bible Software (http://www.crosswire.org) |
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74 | Call from God! | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 217485 | ||
Greetings Searcher56! According to http://www.puritanboard.com/f18/francis-roberts-22125/, "Francis Roberts, English Puritan (1609 - 1675) was a Presbyterian minister who conformed at the Restoration. He published a metrical version of the Psalms (1644) and is most famous for his "1750-page magnum opus on the covenants (The Mystery and Marrow of the Bible: viz. God’s Covenants with Man, 1657)," a copy of which exists at PTRS's Puritan Resource Center (1). For a recent study of his theology, see Won Taek Lim, The Covenant Theology of Francis Roberts (2007)." (posted by VirginiaHuguenot) Therefore, Doc is correct in pointing out that there was a fellow named Francis Roberts who lived during Puritan times. The fact that Mike mentioned his grandmother is quite possibly just a misunderstanding between Doc and Mike, and only clarification (and not an apology) would be needed to bring a more constructive approach to the dialogue. Blessings to you, Makarios (1) http://www.puritanseminary.org/ |
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75 | Fulfill or Abolish? | Heb 1:1 | Makarios | 217483 | ||
Greetings Lionheart, Great advice, brother! Let us all take the time to read Hebrews 7-10. I was reading Romans 7:6 today during downtime at church: "But now we are released from the law, having died to that which held us captive, so that we serve not under the old written code but in the new life of the Spirit." (ESV) This verse, along with Galatians 3:23-26 and Hebrews 7-10, help provide a basis to the following Scriptural foundation: Once we have come to a relationship of faith in Christ, we no longer have to live under our tutor, the law, though we remember the behavior the law has taught us. So we respect our tutor, the law; but we don’t live under it. We live under Jesus by faith! Blessings to you, Makarios |
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76 | By What Law | Rom 3:23 | Makarios | 217471 | ||
MJH, You added some "additional material" all right - 'material' without any Biblical support whatsoever. Makarios |
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77 | "and on their heart I will write it" | Matt 5:17 | Makarios | 217464 | ||
Question: "What does it mean that Jesus fulfilled the law, but did not abolish it?" Answer: In Matthew’s record of what is commonly called the Sermon on the Mount, these words of Jesus are recorded: “Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished” (Matthew 5:17-18). It is frequently argued that if Jesus did not “abolish” the law, then it must still be binding. Accordingly, such components as the Sabbath-day requirement must be operative still, along with perhaps numerous other elements of the Mosaic Law. This assumption is grounded in a misunderstanding of the words and intent of this passage. Christ did not suggest here that the binding nature of the law of Moses would remain forever in effect. Such a view would contradict everything we learn from the balance of the New Testament (Romans 10:4; Galatians 3:23-25; Ephesians 2:15). Of special significance in this study is the word rendered “abolish.” It translates the Greek term kataluo, literally meaning “to loosen down.” The word is found seventeen times in the New Testament. It is used, for example, of the destruction of the Jewish temple by the Romans (Matthew 26:61; 27:40; Acts 6:14), and of the dissolving of the human body at death (2 Corinthians 5:1). The term can carry the extended meaning of “to overthrow,” i.e., “to render vain, deprive of success.” In classical Greek, it was used in connection with institutions, laws, etc., to convey the idea of “to invalidate.” It is especially important to note how the word is used in Matthew 5:17. In this context, “abolish” is set in opposition to “fulfill.” Christ came “...not to abolish, but to fulfill.” Jesus did not come to this earth for the purpose of acting as an opponent of the law. His goal was not to prevent its fulfillment. Rather, He revered it, loved it, obeyed it, and brought it to fruition. He fulfilled the law’s prophetic utterances regarding Himself (Luke 24:44). Christ fulfilled the demands of the Mosaic law, which called for perfect obedience under threat of a “curse” (see Galatians 3:10, 13). In this sense, the law’s divine design will ever have an abiding effect. It will always accomplish the purpose for which it was given. If, however, the law of Moses bears the same relationship to men today, in terms of its binding status, then it was not fulfilled, and Jesus failed at what He came to do. On the other hand, if the Lord did accomplish His goal, then the law was fulfilled, and it is not a binding legal institution today. Further, if the law of Moses was not fulfilled by Christ—and thus remains as a binding legal system for today—then it is not just partially binding. Rather, it is a totally compelling system. Jesus plainly said that not one “jot or tittle” (representative of the smallest markings of the Hebrew script) would pass away until all was fulfilled. Consequently, nothing of the law was to fail until it had completely accomplished its purpose. Jesus fulfilled the law. Jesus fulfilled all of the law. We cannot say that Jesus fulfilled the sacrificial system, but did not fulfill the other aspects of the law. Jesus either fulfilled all of the law, or none of it. What Jesus' death means for the sacrificial system, it also means for the other aspects of the law. [Quoted from http://www.gotquestions.org/abolish-fulfill-law.html] --Makarios |
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78 | Do Christians have to obey the OT Law? | Rom 10:4 | Makarios | 217463 | ||
Question: "Do Christians have to obey the Old Testament law?" Answer: The key to understanding this issue is knowing that the Old Testament law was given to the nation of Israel, not to Christians. Some of the laws were to reveal to the Israelites how to obey and please God (the Ten Commandments, for example). Some of the laws were to show the Israelites how to worship God and atone for sin (the sacrificial system). Some of the laws were intended to make the Israelites distinct from other nations (the food and clothing rules). None of the Old Testament law is binding on us today. When Jesus died on the cross, He put an end to the Old Testament law (Romans 10:4; Galatians 3:23-25; Ephesians 2:15). In place of the Old Testament law, we are under the law of Christ (Galatians 6:2), which is to “love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind…and to love your neighbor as yourself” (Matthew 22:37-39). If we obey those two commands, we will be fulfilling all that Christ requires of us: “All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two commandments” (Matthew 22:40). Now, this does not mean the Old Testament law is irrelevant today. Many of the commands in the Old Testament law fall into the categories of “loving God” and “loving your neighbor.” The Old Testament law can be a good guidepost for knowing how to love God and knowing what goes into loving your neighbor. At the same time, to say that the Old Testament law applies to Christians today is incorrect. The Old Testament law is a unit (James 2:10). Either all of it applies, or none of it applies. If Christ fulfilled some it, such as the sacrificial system, He fulfilled all of it. “This is love for God: to obey his commands. And his commands are not burdensome” (1 John 5:3). The Ten Commandments were essentially a summary of the entire Old Testament law. Nine of the Ten Commandments are clearly repeated in the New Testament (all except the command to observe the Sabbath day). Obviously, if we are loving God, we will not be worshipping false gods or bowing down before idols. If we are loving our neighbors, we will not be murdering them, lying to them, committing adultery against them, or coveting what belongs to them. The purpose of the Old Testament law is to convict people of our inability to keep the law and point us to our need for Jesus Christ as Savior (Romans 7:7-9; Galatians 3:24). The Old Testament law was never intended by God to be the universal law for all people for all of time. We are to love God and love our neighbors. If we obey those two commands faithfully, we will be upholding all that God requires of us. [Quoted from http://www.gotquestions.org/Christian-law.html] --Makarios |
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79 | By What Law | Rom 3:23 | Makarios | 217462 | ||
Greetings MJH, Romans 3:23 "for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God," This includes all Jews as well as all Gentiles. Jesus was the only one who never sinned: 2 Corinthians 5:21 "He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." You did not include any references to scripture in the note that this is in reply to, so I am assuming that you are stating opinions or conjecture. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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80 | animal that can't be killed | Leviticus | Makarios | 217461 | ||
Greetings MJH, Jesus declared all foods as "clean": Mark 7:14 After He called the crowd to Him again, He began saying to them, "Listen to Me, all of you, and understand: Mark 7:15 there is nothing outside the man which can defile him if it goes into him; but the things which proceed out of the man are what defile the man. Mark 7:16 ["If anyone has ears to hear, let him hear."] Mark 7:17 When he had left the crowd and entered the house, His disciples questioned Him about the parable. Mark 7:18 And He *said to them, "Are you so lacking in understanding also? Do you not understand that whatever goes into the man from outside cannot defile him, Mark 7:19 because it does not go into his heart, but into his stomach, and is eliminated?" (Thus He declared all foods clean.) Mark 7:20 And He was saying, "That which proceeds out of the man, that is what defiles the man. Mark 7:21 "For from within, out of the heart of men, proceed the evil thoughts, fornications, thefts, murders, adulteries, Mark 7:22 deeds of coveting and wickedness, as well as deceit, sensuality, envy, slander, pride and foolishness. Mark 7:23 "All these evil things proceed from within and defile the man." If we are to live like Jesus, then we would do well to learn from Mark 7:14-23. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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