Results 3461 - 3480 of 3692
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Results from: Notes Author: Makarios Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
3461 | Earth before it was finished | Gen 1:2 | Makarios | 7970 | ||
Yes, I agree. We must keep 'fanciful interpretation' away from our studies when we begin to read and interpret Scripture. | ||||||
3462 | "the stars also" | Gen 1:16 | Makarios | 7969 | ||
Yes, God's creation is truly remarkable and mind boggling! He 'spoke' all that we see into existence! If you saw a precious or beautiful painting, wouldn't it help to understand that painting if you personally knew the artist? It's amazing what God has done and continues to do! We should worry only about the earth, since the earth has enough problems of its own. All the rest of the universe, including the stars, rests in God's mighty hands.. | ||||||
3463 | In the beginning | Gen 1:1 | Makarios | 7968 | ||
Yes, the Bible is truly a wondrous and magnificent Book, the inspired Word of God! I love to dwell upon it every single day, and I pray that the world would become very 'hungry' to know more about God's Word! Amen and praise the Lord for your testimony! | ||||||
3464 | The Lord Jesus Christ 1 path vs1 | 1 Corinthians | Makarios | 7967 | ||
Very interesting, Derek! And you know, if the Lord reveals something to a believer through Scripture, it is always for a purpose! And that purpose very well could be that it should be 'passed on' to a fellow member of this Forum for their spiritual edification! Thank you for your study of 1 Corinthians.. | ||||||
3465 | Red, and yellow, black, white, and blue? | Gen 9:19 | Makarios | 7966 | ||
Yes, it would be fascinating to 'step' into that timeframe. I, for one, would be interesting in chatting with Enoch.. :) Your family heritage sounds interesting, for both you and your wife, Lionstrong! My family is predominately descended from a Swiss/Irish/German heritage. The only basis for a belief that Eve had similar physical features as Adam is from the fact that Eve was formed from Adam's rib. It is possible that there were a greater variety of races, but I feel that this would be more in the domain of anthropology than that of Biblical history. |
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3466 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Makarios | 7942 | ||
Right on Radioman! Once again, you have shown impressive sources and I am impressed with the depth and honesty in your posts! You are a most welcome and commendable addition to the Forum. Praise the Lord! And keep right on signaling in, Radioman! Over and out, Nolan! |
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3467 | Difference between talents and gifts? | 1 Corinthians | Makarios | 7917 | ||
Good question! In all sincerity, I had already answered this question in my own mind, but I wanted to see what other people thought; I wanted to know how other people thought about talents vs. gifts.. I know that I have many resources here at my home, but sometimes that is a poor substitute to having an authentic answer from a human being who may shed more light on a subject from experience, past observation, or whatever. I appreciate your answer, Gail! And I am curious to know what other people think as far as differences or similarities when it comes to spiritual gifts and natural talents. Probably the best that I could do here is to provide more of an 'academic' answer rather than one based upon experience. In no way am I ever trying to 'test' anyone, since this would place me in an 'exalted' position. I have no right or place on this Forum to do so, and if I ever ask a question, then it is to seek knowledge or to seek the spiritual impact of a verse, topic, etc. I am a student of the Bible with many questions.. :) Thanks Gail! Love in Christ, Nolan |
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3468 | response to question about I Chron 5:26 | 2 Kin 17:6 | Makarios | 7915 | ||
Yes, this passage, 2 Kings 17:6, parallels 1 Chr. 5:26.. It is interesting what Zondervan's NASB Study Bible says about these verses, "In the winter (December) of 722-721 Shalmaneser V died (possibly by assassination), and the Assyrian throne was seized by Sargon II (722-705). In his annals Sargon II lays claim to the capture of Samaria at the beginning of his reign, but it was hardly more than a mopping-up operation. 'carried away into exile'. Because the northern kingdom refused to be obedient to their covenant obligations, the Lord brought on them the judgment pronounced already by Ahijah during the reign of the northern kingdom's first king, Jeroboam I (see note on 1 Kings 14:15). In his annals Sargon II claims to have deported 27,290 Israelites. He then settled other captured people in the vacated towns of the northern kingdom (see v. 24). 'Halah'. Location uncertain. 'Habor, on the river of Gozan'. Or, more likely, "Gozan, on the river of Habor." Gozan was an Assyrian provincial capital located on a tributary of the Euphrates River. 'cities of the Medes'. Towns located in the area south of the Caspian Sea and northeast of the Tigris River." | ||||||
3469 | Christ 'made Himself nothing'? | Phil 2:6 | Makarios | 7912 | ||
Good answer, Steve! I agree with you, and you and I are on the same 'train of thought' here. Christ did not give up any attributes as you have well stated! "Making Himself nothing" essentially boils down to three things: a veiling of His preincarnate glory, a voluntary nonuse of some of His divine attributes on some occasions, and the condescension involved in taking on a human nature.. Part of Christ's 'making Himself nothing' involved veiling the glory that was His for all eternity as God. This was necessary in order for Him to take on the appearance of a man. Christ never surrendered His glory. (If you recall the Mount of Transfiguration, Jesus allowed His intrinsic glory to shine forth for a brief time, illuminating the whole mountainside- Matt. 17). Rather, Jesus veiled His glory in order to dwell among mortal human beings. If Christ had not veiled His preincarnate glory, humans would not have been able to behold Him. It would have been the same as when the apostle John beheld the exalted Christ in His glory in Rev. 1:17 or as when Isaiah beheld the glory of Christ in his vision in the temple (Isaiah 6:5, John 12:41).. Christ's 'making Himself nothing' also involved a voluntary nonuse of some of His divine attributes on some occasions in order for Him to accomplish His objectives. Christ could never have actually surrendered any of His attributes, for then He would have ceased to be God. But He could (and did) voluntarily choose not to use some of them on some occasions during His time on earth in order to live among humans and their limitations (see Matt. 24:36). However, it is critical to note that during His three-year ministry, Jesus did in fact use the divine attributes of omniscience (all knowingness- John 2:24; 16:30), omnipresence (He was everywhere present- John 1:48), and omnipotence (He was all-powerful, as evidenced by His many miracles such as raising people from the dead- John 11). Therefore, in whatever limitations Christ may have suffered when He 'made Himself nothing', He did not subtract a single divine attribute or in any sense make Himself less than God. Third, Christ's 'making Himself nothing' involved condescending by taking on the likeness ("form" or "appearance") of a man, and taking on the form ("very nature") of a bondservant. Christ was truly human. This humanity was one that was subject to temptation, distress, weakness, pain, sorrow, and limitation. Yet, at the same time, it must be noted that the word "likeness" suggests 'similarity but difference'. Though His humanity was genuine, He was different from all other humans in that He was sinless. Nevertheless, this represented a great condescension on the part of Jesus. Thank you for your thoughts Steve! What I said above should be merely added to your answer. |
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3470 | What about event gaps that aren't listed | Gen 6:2 | Makarios | 7905 | ||
Greetings JenkinsDE, I do not know of any books that deal specifically with or answer questions about 'spatial periods of time' or certain gaps of time in the Bible. That is a good question! You may want to try http://bible.crosswalk.com to see if that could shed any light on the subject. However, I do not see such a 'gap' even remotely being alluded to in the context of Genesis 2 to 3.. Also, you stated in your response: "Throughout the Bible events aren't listed spatially in order minute-by-minute, second-by-second. There are time, event, and information gaps that we will not be able to fill or understand on this side of time. We will have to wait until God reveals all knowledge in Eternity (if there will be a need for it). So when events happen in the first few chapters of Genesis, I do not assume that we are given all the information. And, there is information in the first few chapters that give more questions than answers." This is certainly true! Take Matthew, Mark, Luke and John, for instance. We don't know certain details of Jesus' life and the authors wrote with a certain purpose in mind based on what they were inspired to write. The same could be said of the book of Genesis. You also wrote: "On the topic of "greatly increasing your pain in childbirth," I tend to think on how a conversation like that would have continued if Eve had not ever had children. When I'm talking to someone, it helps to have knowledge or experience about the subject in order to be able to contribute understanding to what is being articulated. Without knowing a topic sometimes I look kind of silly trying to talk on it-trying to listen to "babble" is even harder on my brainwaves also. Would she have raised an eyebrow when God said that to her if she had no knowledge of what He was indicting her with? My thought processes, for the most part, won't allow it." There are many examples of God speaking to humanity when humanity simply didn't know or hadn't experienced yet what He was talking about. I believe that the same is true for this passage in Genesis when Eve may have 'raised an eyebrow' at the mention of 'increasing pains in childbirth'. Here are some examples for God 'revealing' things before they happened (without the 'hearer' having prior knowledge): Gen. 6:14, 12:1-3, 22:2, 24:60, 25:23, etc... Here's a NT example: John 21:15-23. And there are many others! :) You also said: "in the family history of Jesus, the ancestry does not go one father to the next son right after one another--there could be a generation or two skipped in-between those listed--and research bare testament to that fact." Could you give me specific examples or name the sources of such research that proves that Luke 3:23-38 is not a valid geneaology (without any 'gaps') between Christ and Adam? If this is so, then it would lend credence to the idea that there are 'errors' in the Word of God, which simply is not the case here or anywhere else. As I read it, the geneaology goes from Son to 'supposed' father to his father and his father, etc, etc.. without any 'gaps' in-between. Yes, the Bible does not come right out and state just who were the 'sons of God' in Genesis 6:2,4, and this issue has already been addressed and discussed at length on this Forum. (You can find those prior discussions by 'Searching' for them.) I am of the persuasion that 'sons of God' is a reference to humans. If so, what other humans could this possibly be making reference to if it wasn't the Godly line of Seth, which was necessary because of the death of Abel? I see no other way to interpret this verse as being the sons of Seth. I sincerely do appreciate you for your thoughts and I encourage you to participate on the Forum! I thank you for your input on this issue and I hope that I have at least answered some of your questions in part. I realize that you may not agree with me, and I welcome that! I do not hold all of the answers myself, but I do realize that we should guard against some of the more 'far fetched' interpretations of the Bible in favor of a more Biblically sound answer. I appreciate your comments and I hope that I have not offended or 'raised your ire' in any way.. Have a blessed day! Nolan |
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3471 | Will we recognize each other in glory? | Luke 24:1 | Makarios | 7887 | ||
You're very welcome, RElderCascade! The depth and wisdom that resonates from your carefully chosen words shows a maturity that is well desired and needed on this Forum! I thank you for your input and I will look forward to the future posts that you write, my friend in Christ! Blessings, Nolan! |
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3472 | Difference between talents and gifts? | 1 Corinthians | Makarios | 7886 | ||
Thanks Gail60! As you have pointed out, natural talents are from God but are transmitted through parents; spiritual gifts come directly from God (1 Cor. 12:4; Rom. 12:3,6). Natural talents are possessed from birth; spiritual gifts are recieved when one becomes a Christian. Natural talents are generally used to benefit human beings on the natural level, whereas spiritual gifts bring spiritual blessing to people (1 Cor. 12:11; Eph. 4:11-13). There are similarities as well! Both talents and spiritual gifts must be developed and exercised. Otherwise, one will not become proficient in their use. As well, both natural talents and spiritual gifts can be used for God's glory. For example, a Christian might have the spiritual gift of teaching. He might also have the natural talent of being able to play the guitar. It is feasible that this person could exercise his spiritual gift of teaching by writing and performing songs that teach about God. Blessings! -Nolan |
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3473 | Male-female equality? | Gal 3:28 | Makarios | 7885 | ||
I always appreciate in-depth and well thought out answers like this one, RElderCascade! Well done! | ||||||
3474 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Makarios | 7884 | ||
The "sons of God" in Genesis 6:2 are not angels. If you read Genesis 3, then you see the fall of man. If man fell from grace in Genesis 3, then the fall of Satan and his unholy angels had to have happened sometime before (or at) the fall of man. After reading the geneaologies of Genesis 4 and 5, Scripture clearly points out that there is a considerable amount of time between the events in Genesis 3 (fall of man) to the events in Genesis 6 (the multiplying of man on the earth). Since the fall of Satan and his angels had to have already happened or happened at the fall of mankind itself (and by doing so created for Satan and his demons permanent and eternal darkness for judgment (Jude 1:6)), then by interpreting the "sons of God" as angels in Genesis 6:2,4 would suggest that Satan and his angels fell 'twice' from grace, since lusting after human flesh would be a fall from holiness! Satan and his demons fell only once from heaven and the angels that remained loyal to God are forever confirmed in holiness, being loyal to Him forever (1 Timothy 5:21), being 'fixed' in their position as holy angels who minister to those who believe. Also, lust is a sin of the flesh, which is not something that would be the cause of a great spiritual revolt in heaven. The sin that caused the downfall of Satan and his angels was that of pride, since Satan wanted to be "like the Most High".. (Isaiah 14:14) This and other observations are more than enough proof that Genesis 6:4 is referring to the Godly line of Seth (which would prove to be the geneaological line of Christ in Luke 3:38), who began to intermarry with the daughters of men. | ||||||
3475 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Makarios | 7882 | ||
JenkinsDE, I appreciate your 'insight', but I disagree with its conclusions. First of all, you introduced the 'possibility' that Eve could have had children before the Fall, and cited Genesis 3:20 in support of this premise. However, I believe that this premise cannot be considered since there is no natural break or period of time between Genesis 2:25 and 3:1, which begins the fall of mankind. Also, I believe that if there were any children preceding the fall, then they would have surely been mentioned in the text since the author of Genesis was so careful to mention that Adam 'had relations' with his wife in Gen. 4:1, 25 and 5:3-4, and paid painstakingly close attention to the children that were the result of the first human births, which were Cain and Abel. I also believe that if there were any children at the time of the fall, then God would have surely addressed them also in Gen. 3:8-24. If there were children who were born prior to the fall, then we could conclude that these children were not banished from the Garden of Eden as their parents were, thus forever being separated from any fellow human being ever again. This premise creates more problems than it engenders. Also, when the Lord speaks of 'man' in verse 22, He is speaking all inclusively, meaning both the man and his wife (and anyone else for that matter), and ending with judgment upon 'man'. Adam did not even name his wife until they had fallen from grace (v. 20), so this (along with the weight of the above observations) shows that Cain and Abel were indeed the first human births. When God said, "I will greatly multiply your pain in childbirth", it cannot be deduced that there was already pain in childbirth for Eve. Nowhere can it be derived from exegesis that it is 'assumed' that Eve had already given birth as a consequence of this verse. If you assume that, then you are reading something into the text that simply is not there, and wasn't meant to be there. There is a great deal of time between the events of Genesis 4 to Genesis 6, as shown by the geneaologies that are presented in 4:17-5:32.. So we can see that just by studying the geneaologies, there is absolutely no mention of a 'line of Adam' that existed before the fall, only Adam's offspring through Cain, Abel, and Seth are presented here. So this is even further evidence against there being any children before the fall. I believe that you are correct in interpreting the 'sons of God' in Genesis 6:2 and 4 as humans, but humans who were from the Godly line of Seth, who was the 'new' seed (5:3), or substitute for the slain Abel in the geneaological line that would eventually lead to Christ (Luke 3:23-38). |
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3476 | What or whom is Prov 8:22 referring to? | Prov 8:22 | Makarios | 7881 | ||
Elijah, this passage does not refer to Jesus. Such an interpretation not only violates the context of the Book of Proverbs, it also violates the whole of Scripture. Note that the first nine chapters of Proverbs deal with wisdom personified. A personification is a rhetorical figure of speech in which inanimate objects or abstractions are endowed with human qualities or are represented as possessing human form. In Proverbs 1-9, wisdom is figuratively endowed with human qualities. With this in mind, it is critical to discern that there is no indication in the text that Proverbs 8 should be taken any differently than chapters 1-7 and 9.. This being so, if we take Proverbs 8:22 to be speaking literally about Christ, we must also assume that Christ is a woman crying in the streets (1:20,21) who lives with someone named "Prudence" (8:12)!! Proverbs 1-9 makes absolutely no sense if one tries to read Christ into the text. I have come to the conclusion that Proverbs 8:22-23 is simply speaking metaphorically of God's eternal wisdom and how it was "brought forth" (v. 24) to take part in the creation of the universe. Proverbs 8 is not saying that wisdom came into being at a point in time (for God has always had wisdom). And it certainly is not saying that Jesus is a created being since the passage is not dealing with Jesus but with wisdom personified. |
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3477 | Where there is no vision, people perish? | Prov 29:18 | Makarios | 7880 | ||
Thats Ok, Mark! What you said was good! And it is up to you about how you go about making a response to my post in 5,000 characters or less.. :) Long answers and short answers are both welcome! I believe that Proverbs 29:18 has been grossly misunderstood by many Christians. It has often been twisted to say that unless we have longrange plans and a well thought-out strategy, we will perish. But such an idea is completely foreign to the context of the passage. I believe that the newer translations such as the NKJV, NIV and NASB render this verse so much more accurately than the venerable KJV.. After studying Proverbs 29:18 on my own during the past day or two, I have come to the conclusion that this verse simply means that when God's Word is suppressed or silenced, people lose restraint and become ungovernable. Instead of doing God's will, they allow their own appetites to take over and they indulge in all kinds of sinful activities. This is illustrated in the Book of Exodus. Moses had left the Israelites for a mere 40 days (when he was receiving God's law), yet they lost all restraint and ended up making an idol.. (Exodus 32:25) |
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3478 | Election, Summary. | 1 Pet 1:2 | Makarios | 7879 | ||
You're welcome, Sam! Thank you for your response. I do not see the 'contradiction' and I will try to explain that. You are correct when you say "there isn't a single verse in the entire Bible that clearly and unambiguously states that God foresaw anyone's alleged "free-will" decision and then on that basis elected (chose) to save us." I agree with this sentence. I think that the confusion rests between distinguishing election and salvation. Election is entirely left up to God's will, and for us to speculate on who, why, when or what is to speculate on something that is totally beyond our capacity to understand. Man cannot determine who has or will be 'elected', and man cannot change God's will in any way, since God's will was set and in place before the foundations of the earth were set, and God does not change. Election is totally up to God, and totally under His control. This supports and affirms my point that man's choosing is not the cause and basis for election. In no way does man have any input whatsoever on election. God is totally in control. When I speak of salvation, man makes a conscious choice to heed the calling of God. I am trying not to confuse or mix up election with salvation here. God in His sovereignty already knows each and every decision that we will make in our lifetimes. I believe that the issue of 'salvation' is where we differ in our points of view. God's calling is to everyone, the world at large, that they may be saved by knowing His Son. But even though people may 'hear' this call, not everyone will accept or follow this calling of God (Matt. 19:16-26). Election is something that man cannot touch, but salvation is something that man can act upon, by heeding the call of God and becoming children in the faith. This is what I meant when I stated that 'God elected people (before the beginning of the world) to salvation who He foreknew would of their own free will believe in Christ and persevere in the faith'.. In no way am I saying that God is acting (or changing) as a result of man's choice. God doesn't change. However, God knows in His sovereignty who will heed his call. It is not for you or me to determine who is elected or not. This is entirely up to God. But it is 'up to us' to make the conscious choice and act of calling upon the name of our Lord, since whoever calls upon the name of the Lord will be saved. So this is what I meant. Sam, I believe that you and I, though we both may believe in election, have different views about salvation, and I believe that this is where we may confuse each other and differ. But the doctrine of election is sound, and is something that man cannot tamper with. I think that you would agree with me at least on that. Thanks, Nolan |
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3479 | How did He get into closed rooms? | John 20:19 | Makarios | 7848 | ||
Why Hank I certainly appreciate that, my friend and fellow brother in Christ! I appreciate your label and will wear it on my forehead as a child of the King! :) I appreciate that, and I will continue to 'show my label' to all who come my way.. God bless you! -Nolan | ||||||
3480 | Did the disciples use 'sidearms'? | John 18:10 | Makarios | 7829 | ||
Thanks Steve. After reviewing several passages such as John 18:10, Matthew 26 and Luke 22:36-38, I have come to the conclusion that the disciples did not wear or use or advocate the use of sidearms. As you have said, the only two that did so were the two Simons- Simon the Zealot and Simon Peter. | ||||||
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