Results 601 - 620 of 629
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Results from: Notes Author: Lionstrong Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
601 | Is Creation a Scientific Fact? | Heb 11:3 | Lionstrong | 59838 | ||
Correct llesman! And welcome to the Studybible Forum! Something must be, and what was, was the Eternal God. By the word of his mouth he created something out of nothing. God did not take something to make the heavens and the earth. He simply commanded them into existance. God is the only eternal. Space, energy, matter are not eternal. They were created. Heb 11:3 "...so that what is seen was not made out of things which are visible." Ps 33:6,9 By the word of the LORD the heavens were made, And by the breath of His mouth all their host.... For He spoke, and it was done; He commanded, and it stood fast. |
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602 | Is Creation a Scientific Fact? | Heb 11:3 | Lionstrong | 59891 | ||
Hi Searcher, I checked out the next two websites, but I didn't see anything having to do with the scientific proof for creation. Maybe I didn't look carefully enough. Peace, |
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603 | Is Creation a Scientific Fact? | Heb 11:3 | Lionstrong | 60344 | ||
Greetings Fly! Actually these elements of which you speak weren't created out of nothing. They were formed by the force of the atomic blast from other elements surrounding the blast. True out of nothing creation is recorded in Gen 1. All there was was God. Space, matter and time came into being at the command of the Triune God of the Bible. It is impossible for science to come to any conclusions about the Gen 1 creation. This is so NOT because science can be rational. Rationality has nothing to do with it. The creation of Gen 1 is simply something that science cannot study. Science can only study something that is there and continues to exist. Creation, however, was a one time occurrance. The very nature of science depends on repitition. Therefore creation is outside the scope of science. Information about creation cannot come to be known by scientific investigation. It can only be know by revelation, which the God of the Bible has been pleased to give us. Peace, |
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604 | Is Creation a Scientific Fact? | Heb 11:3 | Lionstrong | 60542 | ||
Thanks for you kind response, Fly. Is there a web site for this Creation Science group? In the Scripture we have information about the creation of the heavens and the earth that we can study. We're told who did it; how long it took, and the order in which things were commanded into existence. But concerning the Big Bang, what's to study? It seems to me to be pure speculation about a speculation of our origin. Pure speculation does not fit into the definition of what science is. So, is it still science when it's pure speculation? If so, what is science? Peace, |
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605 | Is God ONE or is God THREE? | James 2:19 | Lionstrong | 37318 | ||
Hi Tim! As far as I've read the thread, I like the discussion so far. Question: Matt 3:17 and behold, a voice out of the heavens said, "This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased." Who was the Father talking to, the Son of God or the Son of man? Peace, Lionstrong |
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606 | Is God ONE or is God THREE? | James 2:19 | Lionstrong | 37320 | ||
Hi Tim! Correction: Question: Matt 3:17 and behold, a voice out of the heavens said, "This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased." WHICH SON was the Father talking to, the Son of God or the Son of man? Peace, Lionstrong |
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607 | Is God ONE or is God THREE? | James 2:19 | Lionstrong | 37360 | ||
I don't understand your use of "spirit of God." Please explain. You wrote, "I believe the Father was speaking of Christ--the fleshly tabernacle or body..." So, the Son is the body of the spirit of God and not the person? Please explain. My opinion on this point is that the Father, who is a person, was refering to his Son, who is another person. Jerry is my son, with whom I am (sometimes) well pleased. :) Peace, Lionstrong |
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608 | Is God ONE or is God THREE? | James 2:19 | Lionstrong | 37588 | ||
Hi Tim, CLARIFICATION: OK, I think I understand your use of “spirit.” Let me ask you to clarify this next term, Son. You write, “The Son is the body of God--the expression of the nature of God in human terms for the purpose of redemption and reconciliation. “ OK, first you say the son is the body. Then you seem to define the body as the expression of the nature of God. Do I have that right? If I’ve got it right, then I’m puzzled. You see, my understanding of a body is something with eyes, ears, nose; fingers and toes, that is, something physical. But you seem to be saying, no, that the body is the nature of God, that is, spiritual. So, is the Son the body God used, or is the son God’s nature (love, holiness, justice, etc.) or what? Some say Jesus was God in a body. Is this what you mean, God’s nature or spirit in a human body? I think it is, because later on you use the phrase “fleshly embodiment of the Father. I have other questions, but let’s keep it simple and tackle one question at a time. Peace, Lionstrong |
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609 | How can we influence who is saved? | 1 Pet 2:9 | Lionstrong | 27512 | ||
Hi Robert, You write as if it would be unrighteous of God not to give an "opportunity for humankind to respond to the savior," as if his righteousness obligates him to give all men such an opportunity. I submit that if God chose not to save a single soul, he would be no less righteous. God is just and, "will render to every man according to his deeds." Rom. 2:6 And, "Rom. 6:23 For the wages of sin is death..." This is what God "owes" man. God is merciful. He chooses to be glorified in the demonstration of his great mercy, but he is not obligated to show mercy to anyone. He is totally free to save or not save anyone. "For He says to Moses, 'I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.'" Rom. 9:15 So in his great mercy, he sends his Son into the world to save "his" people (Mat 1:21). But the Son himself has the prerogative of whom he saves, for he says, "All things have been handed over to Me by My Father; and no one knows the Son, except the Father; nor does anyone know the Father, except the Son, and anyone to whom the Son wills to reveal Him." Matt. 11:27 I submit that one thing that makes God's mercy so great is that is totally without any obligation on God's part to extend it. It is totally free, unmerited, grace. Grace alone. Peace, Lionstrong |
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610 | How can we influence who is saved? | 1 Pet 2:9 | Lionstrong | 27557 | ||
Do you not think that there are those who have been drawn to the saviour by the Holy Spirit and yet have refused Christ? John 6:44 "No one can come to Me, unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day. John 6:37 "All that the Father gives Me shall come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out. Hi Robert! I believe that none that the Almighty God draws to Christ in his absolutely free and abundant mercy, will refuse his salvation. Joe, the Reformer, has given a most gracious response to your post than I could ever think or imagine. And like he said, some might get upset if we start yet another thread on this subject. Peace, Lionstrong, a.k.a LooseCannon:) |
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611 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Lionstrong | 18909 | ||
Hello Tim! For reasons already given for the propitiation of Christ, John must be refering to the rest of the believers in the world. Peace, Lionstrong |
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612 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Lionstrong | 18914 | ||
Hold on, brother Tim! Let me see what I wrote to see if it can mean what you think it meant! I wrote: For reasons already given for the propitiation of Christ, John must be referring to the rest of the believers in the world. O.K., I see how I might have been unclear. I was not referring to all the references you gave for I John, but the reference under which this thread is posted, I John 2:2 "...He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world." I did not mean this is the only way John used the word world, but in this verse and in light of the previous reasons given for the propitiation of our Savior, John is referring to the rest of the believers in the world. Hope this helps to clarify. Peace, Lionstrong |
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613 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Lionstrong | 19421 | ||
It is not true Brother Tim, That all 23 references have the same meaning. You yourself give at least two meanings (which increases the chances of there being a third, if we're playing the odds :-)). You apply your view of 1 Jn 2:2 not because the text demands it. If my view is not right, it is at least possible. There is also nothing inherently contradictory about understanding it that way. Jesus's death not only propitiated the wrath of God for the believing John and the believers to which he wrote, but also for believers of the whole world. This speaks of a universal extent of the propitiation of our Savior. His propitiation is not an impersonal blanket that covers the whole world indescriminately. God is not impersonal. Jesus is the personal, almighty omniscient God and he had you in mind when he hung on the cross, that his blood would appeas the wrath of the Father against you. Peace, Lionstrong |
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614 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Lionstrong | 19453 | ||
Well, in this verse John DOES use the word world in refering to believers, dear Brother Tim, Because it's the only meaning that makes sense of the Savior's propitiation, if one knows what propitiation means. But some maintain that the wrath of God towards all people has been propitiated and at the same time maintain Rom 1:18 is true. Rom 1:18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men who suppress the truth in unrighteousness, Peace, Lionstrong |
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615 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Lionstrong | 19501 | ||
I have nothing but praise, Brother Tim, For your research in the Word of God. If more of us forum members followed your good example, our debates would be more, maybe much more, productive. You started off admirably to see how propitiation was used in the NT to try to develop a biblical definition. Why didn't you finish? You should have concluded with something like, "So we see from these verses that protiation means...." I wish you had, for then you would have seen that its meaning demands that I John 2:2 be applied to believers only in the whole world. If you had, then you could consistantly hold 1 John 2:2 and Rom 2:18. So, what does propitiation mean? Peace, Lionstrong |
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616 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Lionstrong | 19502 | ||
Dear Tim, This post address some of the issues in your post. Peace, Lionstrong Note: this writer shares your belief of unlimited atonement. Pay attention to point 1) of his summary. ************************************* Someone writes: "The only sin that Chris... kalos Tue 04/24/01, 10:45pm Note: Someone writes: "The only sin that Christ didn't pay for is the sin of unbelief....sin of unbelief. That is the one sin that MUST be repented of... That sin, unbelief in Christ, cannot be forgiven, it must be repented of." . . . It is not clear to me who wrote the above question. . . . Whoever wrote it, you are very much mistaken to say that there is a sin that Christ didn't pay for. There is not one sin that Christ did not pay for. To say or imply otherwise borders on blasphemy. . . . Then to say: "That sin cannot be forgiven, it must be repented of." Repentance and confession are always required and go together with forgiveness. To say it's either forgiveness or repentance makes no sense, neither biblically nor in any other way. . . . We need to take great care when we word our questions and comments concerning God's Word and the atonement of Christ. Carelessness can lead to erroneous statements that could confuse Christians and deceive non-Christians. . . . To summarize, 1) Christ's death on the cross paid for every sin, not every sin but the sin of unbelief. 2) To make forgiveness and repentance opposites, to make them two mutually exclusive things, is confusing and not true. 3) No matter what the sin, repentance is required before forgiveness can be granted. 4) Unbelief is NOT the "one" sin that must be repented of. Every sin must be repented of. . . . Then you write: "You must change your mind about who Christ is. This is the illusive 'unpardonable sin.'" . . . "This is the illusive 'unpardonable sin.'" No, it isn't. It is not. The only unpardonable sin Jesus ever labeled as such is the blasphemy against the Holy Spirit. That is, ascribing to Satan the work or activities of the Holy Spirit. Who are we to ignore what Jesus clearly taught about the unpardonable sin and then make up our own definitions? One last thing: I have no personal animosity toward you. I strongly disagree with what you wrote. But I value you as a brother Christian who apparently loves the Word and is doing his best to understand it, as we all are. |
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617 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Lionstrong | 19513 | ||
Correction, Tim, That wasn't my post. It was Kalos'. I did a cut and paste for you consideration. Peace, Lionstrong P.S. But I bear you no animosity :-) |
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618 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Lionstrong | 19527 | ||
Sorry, Tim, I meant Rom. 1:18. Note that Mr. Morris does not write "His propitiation was for all (I John 2:2)" but, "His propitiation is adequate for all." I understand your definition, but I agree with Morris', who simply defines it as "removing the deivine wrath." With your definition, of course, you don't need I John 2:2 to prove your point! :-) It's one thing to say propitiation means "Christ has appeased God's wrath against the sins of every man, woman, and child, who has ever lived, or ever will lived," and another thing to say that the propitiation (which means removing the deivine wrath) of Christ "appeased God's wrath against the sins of every man, woman, and child, who has ever lived, or ever will lived." So is yours a definition or simply a restatement of the Arminiam view of Our Savior's propitiation? Peace, Lionstrong |
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619 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Lionstrong | 19555 | ||
Read them again, Tim, And you will see that they are not the same. Maybe the quotes and parenthesis confused you. 1) Propitiation MEANS Christ has appeased God's wrath against the sins of every man, woman, and child, who has ever lived, or ever will lived. 2) The propitiation of Christ appeased God's wrath against the sins of every man, woman, and child, who has ever lived, or ever will lived. One is a definition, and the other is simply a statement of a doctrinal view. Further more, your definition is not the same as the one you referenced. Morris' definition is simply "removing the deivine wrath." (period) He never defines it in terms of its extent. To repeat, Mr. Morris does not write "His propitiation was for all (I John 2:2)" but, "His propitiation is ADEQUATE for all." Yours definition is (and I quote): "propitiation MEANS [my caps] that Christ has appeased God's wrath against the sins of every man, woman, and child, who has ever lived, or ever will lived." In other words your definition assumes the point you are trying to prove. So, again, my question: Is yours a definition, or simply a restatement of the Arminiam view of Our Savior's propitiation? Peace, Lionstrong |
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620 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Lionstrong | 19568 | ||
I'm sorry, Brother Tim, That you see it as straining at gnats. I see it as making sure that you yourself see what you're calling a definition of propitiation. As your definition assumes the point at issue, it does not violate the text of any of the eight verses. However, your analysis of the eight verses does not warrant such a definition. 1 John 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. -says who the propitiation's for and the extent(which is our point of contention). Does not say what propitiation is. ********************************* 1 John 4:10 In this is love, not that we loved God, but that He loved us and sent His Son to be the propitiation FOR OUR SINS. -says why the propition was necessary (God's wrath incurred by our sins), but does not say what propitiation is. ************************************* Luke 18:13 "But the tax collector, standing some distance away, was even unwilling to lift up his eyes to heaven, but was beating his breast, saying, 'God, be merciful to me, the sinner!' -is a repentant sinner's request for God to be propitious. God is the object of Christ's propitiation, but this verse does not define the term. ********************************** Heb 2:17 Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. -the office in which Christ executes the propitiatory sacrice (the office of priest). One note (in my favor :-) ): following the OT figure, the propitiation is made for the people--the Philistines? No, God's people, Israel. So like wise in the NT, propitiation is not for everyone, but for the people of God only, those who are his by faith in our Lord. But still, propitiation is not defined. *************************************** Rom 3:25 whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed; -faith, the instrument by which the propitiation of our Lord is applied to us. Propitiation is "in his blood" alone "through faith" alone. This excludes unbelievers. But again, this verse does not define our word. ******************************************** Heb 9:5 and above it were the cherubim of glory overshadowing the mercy seat; but of these things we cannot now speak in detail. -the lid on the Ark was called the propitiation. Who alone had access to the Holy of Holies? And for whom did he enter once a year--for the Egyptians? No, God's people. Again, an OT figure for the reality in Christ who went into the true Holy of Holies with his own blood for God's people. Nope, no definition. *************************************** Heb 8:12 "FOR I WILL BE MERCIFUL TO THEIR INIQUITIES, AND I WILL REMEMBER THEIR SINS NO MORE." -God will be propitious. The context is the New Covenant. How do we become partakers of the New Covenant wherein God will be propitious toward our iniquities and remember our sins no more? By faith alone! NOT for unbelievers. But it doesn't define propitious. ************************************ Matt 16:22 Peter took Him aside and began to rebuke Him, saying, "God forbid it, Lord! This shall never happen to You." -Lord have mercy! Peace, Lionstrong |
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