Results 1541 - 1560 of 1935
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Results from: Notes Author: BradK Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1541 | Do you have to know Christ? | Eph 2:8 | BradK | 146652 | ||
Hello journey me, You might be confusing things here a bit:-) You say there are 2 ways to enter the kingdom of God? How so? There is but one way, John 14:6 always has been and always will be. Salvation has ALWAYS been by faith in Christ. Refer to Hebrews 11. My dear friend, the Law will only condem. It cannot save anyone! Galatians 3:21-22, "Is the Law then contrary to the promises of God? May it never be! For if a law had been given which was able to impart life, then righteousness would indeed have been based on law. But the Scripture has shut up everyone under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe." Galatinas 2:16, "nevertheless knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the Law but through faith in Christ Jesus, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the Law; since by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified." Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1542 | If we sin, can we still go to heaven? | Eph 2:8 | BradK | 190744 | ||
Hello acts 2:38, My friend you're placing an enormous burden upon our flesh. What scripture verse(s) tells us "if you are smoking when Jesus comes back no you will not go to Heaven"? Here's what Galatians states: 2:16- "nevertheless knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the Law but through faith in Christ Jesus, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the Law; since by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified." 2:21- "I do not nullify the grace of God, for if righteousness comes through the Law, then Christ died needlessly." 3:11- "Now that no one is justified by the Law before God is evident; for, "THE RIGHTEOUS MAN SHALL LIVE BY FAITH." 3:21-22- "Is the Law then contrary to the promises of God? May it never be! For if a law had been given which was able to impart life, then righteousness would indeed have been based on law. But the Scripture has shut up everyone under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe." It is absolutely foreign to scripture (and grace) for us to clean up our flesh in order to be spritual! Thank God for Christ Jesus! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1543 | Faith a gift? | Eph 2:8 | BradK | 213084 | ||
Hi keliy, I'm apologize. My response was brief and time simply did not allow me to fully deal with all aspects:-) Perhaps I should have expanded my reply? Let me try. In Rom. 10:17, what Paul says with the particle (apa)- with which the verse begins- seems to indicate that what he says is a consequence of what was said previously in vs. 14. I believe "out of hearing" (ex akons) means that the source of faith is that which is heard or the thing heard. "Faith is derived from the essence of what is heard, which means that the key to understanding this verse centers in that which is heard" (Campbell). All who believe that God's method of saving sinners today is entirely by grace, must, in order to be consistent, also believe that he gives sinners the necessary faith for appropriating salvation. The question comes up that what about sinners who have little or no exposure to the Word of God, but upon hearing John 3:16, they are saved? Where did they get their instant faith? I would say this, upon the basis of this context, faith is obviously generated in sinful men, but can we truly affirm that this is the only way God imparts saving faith to those chosen in Christ? In Rom. 12:3 we can note that our thinking soundly is qualified by the statement, "as God has distributed to each one a measure of faith" Many commentators note that it is difficult to ascertain exactly what Paul means by the phrase "a measure of faith" (metron pisteos). Marvin Vincent, for example,offers the following insight- "The measure of faith (metron pisteos). An expression which it is not easy to define accurately. It is to be noted: 1. That the point of the passage is a warning against an undue self-estimate, and a corresponding exhortation to estimate one’s self with discrimination and sober judgment. 2. That Paul has a standard by which self-estimate is to be regulated. This is expressed by (os) as, according as. 3. That this scale or measure is different in different persons, so that the line between conceit and sober thinking is not the same for all. This is expressed by (emerisen) hath imparted, distributed, and (ekasto) to each one. 4. The character of this measure or standard is determined by faith. It must be observed that the general exhortation to a proper self-estimate is shaped by, and foreshadows, the subsequent words respecting differences of gifts. It was at this point that the tendency to self-conceit and spiritual arrogance would develop itself. Hence the precise definition of faith here will be affected by its relation to the differing gifts in vs. 6. Its meaning, therefore, must not be strictly limited to the conception of justifying faith in Christ, though that conception includes and is really the basis of every wider conception. It is faith as the condition of the powers and offices of believers, faith regarded as spiritual insight, which, according to its degree, qualifies a man to be a prophet, a teacher, a minister, etc.; faith in its relation to character, as the only principle which develops a man’s true character, and which, therefore, is the determining principle of the renewed man’s tendencies, whether they lead him to meditation and research, or to practical activity. As faith is the sphere and subjective condition of the powers and functions of believers, so it furnishes a test or regulative standard of their respective endowments and functions. Thus the measure applied is distinctively a measure of faith. With faith the believer receives a power of discernment as to the actual limitations of his gifts. Faith, in introducing him into God’s kingdom, introduces him to new standards of measurement, according to which he accurately determines the nature and extent of his powers, and so does not think of himself too highly. This measure is different in different individuals, but in every case faith is the determining element of the measure. Paul, then, does not mean precisely to say that a man is to think more or less soberly of himself according to the quantity of faith which he has, though that is true as a fact; but that sound and correct views as to the character and extent of spiritual gifts and functions are fixed by a measure, the determining element of which, in each particular case, is faith." Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1544 | is water-baptism needed for salvation? | Eph 2:8 | BradK | 223829 | ||
Hello clsx2, I'm familiar with the Acts 2:38 "formula" for salvation. However, there's a couple obvious problems evident with this view if we are to hang our hat on it: 1. where's faith in all this? And, does this not rather portray a "works-based" righteousness? 2. Acts is a Narrative. One must excercise caution in deriving doctrine from such a book as this. The context should be primary. Does the rest of scripture teach and/or support this? Do not these scriptures say otherwise?: John 3:16, 11:25; Eph. 2:8-9, Tit. 3:5., 2 Tim. 1:9 Paul gives one of the clear presentations of the Gospel in 1 Cor. 15:1-4. Particularly note vs 3 and 4! Nothing is mentioned about baptism! Did Paul neglect this? Or, is it that salvation does not require baptism? As Rom. 11:6 clearly teaches, "But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works, otherwise grace is no longer grace" (NASB). Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1545 | is water-baptism needed for salvation? | Eph 2:8 | BradK | 223834 | ||
Hello Beja, Good point. It's also important to remember Peter cannot be saying something different than he's said elswhere in his writings! For example, in 1 Peter 1:3, he says, "Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who according to His great mercy has caused us to be born again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead," So, here we're told, "...His great mercy has caused us to be born again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead," Nothing about a salvific nature or imperative of baptism! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1546 | is water-baptism needed for salvation? | Eph 2:8 | BradK | 223841 | ||
Hello Godinus, You ask, "How has God "caused us to be born again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead," if not through baptism?" By Faith! Heb. 11 is recognized as the faith Hall of Fame! I notice that there is not a corresponding chapter devoted to those noted because of baptism:-) The Pauline passages such as Rom. 6:3-5 are often (mistakenly) taken to be referring to water baptism. I do not believe they are and that he is here referring to spiritual baptism, which is the agency by which we are placed into union with Christ! The work of the Holy Spirit in our salvation is much overlooked and neglected! Note 1 Cor. 12:13 "For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink of one Spirit." (NASB) Paul's use of this term is interesting. This is in the aorist tense, passive voice. This basically means it refers to a past (aorist) action (once for all)where the subject (passive) is acted upon by an outside force. The question then becomes, what is this outside force? It is also interesting to note that Rom. 6:3, Gal. 3:27, and Col. 2:12, are also aorist tense, passive voice! The action of 1 Cor. 12:13 is clear! So is Acts 1:5, "for John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with (by) the Holy Spirit not many days from now." (NASB) In both these examples, denoting the difference between water baptism and Spirit baptism, the passive voice is used. This signifies the action being performed upon the subject by an outside force. In this case, the Holy Spirit. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1547 | is water-baptism needed for salvation? | Eph 2:8 | BradK | 223864 | ||
Hello Godinus, You state, "Yes we have the work of baptism but this work was ordained of God before the foundations of the world." You further state, "salvation through baptism because it is the extension of our faith unto justification of life." How do you arrive at these conclusions? Can you demonstrate the truth of any of this from Scripture? Rom. 5:1 clearly says, "Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ," (NASB) My friend you are so completely misapplying and twisting scripture to make your point. We are either saved by grace through faith or we're not! You are depending upon something other than the finished work of Christ on the cross! I end my discussion on this matter here. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1548 | ... | Eph 2:15 | BradK | 211187 | ||
Hi Cheri, I'm confused then, What did Paul mean in Eph. 2:15? Does not Rom 10:4 make it clear?. "For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes." (NASB) Christ was born, lived and taught under the law. What he said in Matt. 5- the Sermon on the Mount- was said under the law. He had not yet gone to the cross! The law was abolished at the cross as a means of righteousness. ( Rom. 7:6, Gal. 3:11, 13, 21) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1549 | ... | Eph 2:15 | BradK | 211234 | ||
Hi Cheri, I would submit that we're approaching this matter from very different orientations! I understand the analogy with my courtship, but Christ is now my goal, not the knowing the law. As Steve Bricker has already noted, if Christ has kept, fulfilled the law- which He has- what's left for me to do? What would be the purpose? As Gal. 3:24-25 states, "Therefore the Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith. But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor." (NASB) The purpose of the law was (and is) to lead one to saving faith in Christ, not to keep it's precepts! No one can keep the law. The law is not abolished in that it still stands in all it's majesty and glory (Rom. 7:12). What has changed is the believers relation to the law! I'm no longer under it's condemnation and curse! (Rom.8:1, Col.2:14) Pauls entire argument in Galatians is to those who would seek to keep the law and not rest in faith for their justification. Note his words in Gal.5:4, "You have been severed from Christ, you who are seeking to be justified by law; you have fallen from grace." What matters now is "faith working through love", not adherence to the Torah! One cannot be both walking by faith (in Christ) and keeping the Torah. They're mutually exclusive:-) My goal is to "know Christ", not the Torah which is a mere shadow. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1550 | ... | Eph 2:15 | BradK | 211301 | ||
Hello Ovadyah, So, I started out faulty? I wasn't aware that I chopped anything? I'm apparently missing something here! At any rate, I have absolutely no desire to continue this discussion as I fail to see any merit in it. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1551 | Jesus decended into hell? | Eph 4:9 | BradK | 171528 | ||
Hello DrB, Could you demonstrate exactly how "every time the word "Hell" is read in the New Testament, you need to understand that the writer is talking about the grave."? The late Dr. Kenneth Wuest- a noted Greek scholar- offers these insights into the word "hell": "Hell. There are three Greek words, each referring to a different place, all of which are translated by the one word hell, a fact that causes considerable confusion in interpreting the passages where they occur. These words are geenna, haides and tartaroô . The first comes into English in the word Gehenna, the second, in the word Hades, and the third, in the word Tartarus. Geenna refers to the final abode of the wicked dead, called The Lake of Fire in The Revelation (20:14, 15). Where this word occurs, the translation should be hell. It is found in Matt. 5:22, 29, 30, 10:28, 18:9, 23:15, 33; Mark. 9:43, 45, 47; Luke 12:5; Jamess. 3:6. Haides refers to the temporary abode of the dead before the resurrection and ascension of the Lord Jesus, the part reserved for the wicked dead, called haides (Luke 16:23), the other for the righteous dead, called Abraham’s bosom (Luke 16:22), paradise (Luke 23:43), haides (Acts 2:27, 31); and to the temporary abode of the wicked dead from those events until the Great White Throne judgment, the righteous dead going at once to be with the Lord (Phil. 1:23; II Cor. 5:8). The word haides is from the Greek stem "id" which means “to see,” and the Greek letter Alpha prefixed which makes the composite word mean “not to see,” the noun meaning “the unseen.” The word itself in its noun form refers to the unseen world made up of all moral intelligences not possessing a physical body. These would include the holy angels, the fallen angels, the demons, the wicked dead, and the righteous dead. As to the inhabitants in the unseen world, the holy angels are in heaven, the fallen angels in Tartarus, the wicked dead in Hades, the righteous dead in heaven, and the demons in the atmosphere of the earth and in the bottomless pit. All these are included in the unseen world. The context should decide as to whether the Greek word haides should be transliterated or translated. Where the context deals with departed human beings and their place of abode in the unseen world, it would seem that the word should be transliterated, and the specific name “Hades” be given that place. These places are Matt. 11:23; Luke 10:15, 16:23; Acts 2:27, 31; Rev. 6:8, 20:13, 14. Where the context refers to the unseen world as a whole, the word should be translated, as for instance: Matt. 16:18, “the gates (councils) of the Unseen,” namely, the councils of Satan in the unseen world, shall not prevail against the church; or Rev. 1:18, “I have the keys of the Unseen and of death.” Our Lord controls the entire unseen world. Tartarosas is the word in II Pet. 2:4 “cast down to hell.” The fallen angels were sent to their temporary prison house, Tartarus, until the Great White Throne judgment. Make a study of these places where the word “hell” occurs, in the light of the distinctive Greek word found in each place, and see how much better you understand these passages." Also, feel free to tell us something about yourself under User Profile. It is helpful and allows us to get to know one another better:-) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1552 | Jesus decended into hell? | Eph 4:9 | BradK | 171600 | ||
Hello Dr.B, As you know, critics are numerous and I suspect all scholars have them:-) The internet is both a great source of information and a large bathroom wall!I don't know who Dr. Ron Powell is or what might have motivated his "agenda" against Dr. Weust. Supposing he's right- and has altuistic motives- then many of us have been duped! I guess my obvious question would be, "why is Dr. Powell any more of a credible authority than the late Dr. Weust"? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1553 | Jesus decended into hell? | Eph 4:9 | BradK | 171609 | ||
Dear DrB, Likewise, it would be more effort than I care to devote to analyze Dr. Powell's critique of Weust. I am familiar with Weust and have had his Word Studies set for well over a decade. I consider it a valuable work and very insightful:-) A better question has occurred to me: Why did Powell waste so much time in a critique/rebuttal to Weust's Book of Romans? I'd much rather have a Commentary on Romans by the more qualified and honest Dr. Powell-if in fact he is! I find it hard to swallow the insinuation that Powell himself has no "pre-conceived Christian beliefs" and is totally without theological bias of any sort? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1554 | Jesus decended into hell? | Eph 4:9 | BradK | 171615 | ||
REPOST: FOLLOW UP ON DR. RON POWELL I did a little due-diligence. I checked the source and here's what I came up with. Decide for yourself. No bias or "pre-conceived Christian beliefs" by Dr. Ron Powell on the late Greek scholar Kenneth Weust??? Check for yourself: "KJV-ASIA.COM A Website Testifying Of God's Faithfulness In Preserving The Holy Bible Unto This Generation." I don't see any bias here!?! Further: "Dr. Powell upholds the King James Bible as being the perfect, preserved word of God. He does not, and will not, go to Greek or Hebrew to correct the English Bible, even though he has had three years of Greek [4.0 average] and one year of Hebrew [4.0 average]." Hmmm... I wonder why he is so critical of Weust?Come on and stop the appeal to altruism. We all have a bias-of-sorts if we're honest. Who's the pot calling the kettle black? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1555 | Jesus decended into hell? | Eph 4:9 | BradK | 171676 | ||
Dear DrB, Your use of metaphors is noted:-) Might I ask why YOUR view should be the excepted one and are you claiming to be free from any bias? I'm afraid I'll need to leave this discussion at this point as I see you have an entirely different view of hell that is outside the bounds of orthodoxy! That is my bias and I'll stand on it. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1556 | Jesus decended into hell? | Eph 4:9 | BradK | 171697 | ||
Dear DrB, I will respect your reply on this matter and I understand the point you make. Though we do disagree, I appreciate your patience and tone of response:-) If I may encourage you, please feel free to add a User Profile about yourself. It does help in the area of both understanding and communication. You are welcome to read mine in case you haven't. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1557 | pastors or ministers? | Eph 4:11 | BradK | 133783 | ||
Hi Misty, I'm sorry if you felt you were given a less-than-christian welcome here on the Forum. My apology if I came across offensive in any way. To help remedy the situation, why don't you feel free to check out my user profile and add one for yourself. This is one of the ways we get to know each other:-) Additionally, one usually needs to develop repoire- which occurs over time. People need to get to know you and get a "feel" for where you're coming from. This develops from consistent postings. The problem is that many newcomers aren't willing to "tough it out" to be accepted. Doc brought up a valid point that intent and attitude are sometimes hard to convey on the internet. That's certainly true here. It's been said that we judge ourselves by our intent, but others by their actions:-)One of the ongoing challenges on this Forum are that quite a few (and I'm not infering you're one of them) don't bother to review the guidelines and purpose. This creates some immediate friction. Lastly, this is a public Forum (as I stated before), and ALL of our ideas, opinions, and statements are open to scrutiny. We have to expect that not all will agree with us and offer us a challenge. It is part of life. Please don't confuse my being direct with attacking you. That's never been my intent:-) We have to learn to view a rebuttal constructively and not take it as a personal. Many of us who have been around for a while view opinions with much reservation because experience has proven this caution as warranted. I think there is much benefit to be gained from being on this Forum (which is why I'm still around), but it does take time to get comfortable with the day-to-day "flavors" and the different personalities involved. I've chosen to be involved, grow and learn and I hope you will too:-) My hope is that this helps you to understand a bit more of the Forum and hopefully my heart and intent- which is to glorfy and give honor to the Lord Jesus Christ! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1558 | Valid 'gifts?' | Eph 4:11 | BradK | 144149 | ||
Hi Eaglefaith, Welcome to the Forum. I was wondering if you could further define what you mean by " Our communication with God is Spirit to spirit." Just hoping for purposes of clarification. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1559 | Valid 'gifts?' | Eph 4:11 | BradK | 144150 | ||
Hi Eaglefaith, Welcome to the Forum. I was wondering if you could further define what you mean by " Our communication with God is Spirit to spirit." Just hoping for purposes of clarification. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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1560 | Are there any true prophets/prophetss' t | Eph 4:11 | BradK | 194440 | ||
Hello michael, I'm not sure what in the "five-fold ministry" in 4:11-12 would claim prophets are still relevent? The basic concern I- and anyone should have- is extra-biblical revelation trumping the written Word of God. Where do you draw the line? Is the Word our final arbiter and authority or is it not? If the office of prophet is stll active, that tells me God has not really spoken all and His Word is not complete! I think the case for any so-called "prophet" is tenuous at best! Here is what the late NT Greek scholar Kenneth Weust said of this passage: "Paul identifies the gifts spoken of in verse 7. They are gifted men, given to the Church. There is an intensive pronoun in the Greek text. “He Himself gave,” and no other. He gave some saints as apostles. The word speaks in a primary sense of the twelve apostles, and in a secondary sense, of those who proclaim the Word of God today. “Prophets” refers, not to those who foretell the future, but to preachers and expounders of the Word." [Kenneth S. Wuest, Wuest's Word Studies from the Greek New Testament] Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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