Results 641 - 660 of 1935
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Results from: Notes Author: BradK Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
641 | Are these bulls in the Mormon temple? | Num 23:1 | BradK | 195441 | ||
Hello Rookie, I am glad to hear you're a believer. Praise God! Since I'm not overly familiar with Mormon theology, I might recommend you go to www.carm.org/mormon. They have a wealth of good info as well as links to other sites that may be able to help you. God bless and let us know if we can be of further help. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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642 | during the 3 days? | Matthew | BradK | 195414 | ||
Hello tron, I appreciate the kind words my friend. However, I would agree with Jesusman in what he said. He's correct based on Historical Christianity if nothing else. Yet, scripture itself charges us to: "preach the word; be ready in season and out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort, with great patience and instruction" (2 Tim. 4:2 NASB) Paul himself even names specifically Hymenaeus and Philetus in 2 Tim. 2:17, saying "their talk will spread like gangrene..." (NASB) He also pointed out others who harmed him, Demas (2 Tim. 4:10), and Alexander (4:14). He warned them why: "Be on guard against him yourself, for he vigorously opposed our teaching." (4:15) I can be certain that Paul spoke did not speak lightly in the words he used, and I also don't think Jesusman was remiss in his pointing out obvious error by the WOF teachers he named. I'm of the same opinion! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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643 | during the 3 days? | Matthew | BradK | 195389 | ||
Hello G. Preston, Thanks for your question. My reaction was based on the answers given by the poster to the original question, "where was Jesus during the time between his death and resurrection?" I may have better termed the answers as "unqualified", since they were largely given as fact. I was merely pointing out that those answers did not match up (very) well with the scripture references. The regard for context was missing and the support from any other authorities, i.e. scholars was lacking IMO. My experience on the SBF has taught me many things. One is we need to be mindful of (myself included) the result of and consequence of what we post. There are many people who daily come to the SBF asking questions and seeking answers. This entails a significant responsibility and we owe it that our replies be well studied and supported. (This doesn't mean to imply there isn't room for disagreement on non-essentials, etc.) Personally, I strive to be mindful of these things: 2 Tim. 2:15- 1. If I don't know the answer to a question (which happens regularly), I don't answer. I try to avoid "off-the-top-of-my-head" type responses. Or, I wait until I've had time to study and consider it more fully; 2. I take time to review my many notes on various topics and books of the Bible to refresh my memory; 3. I also utilize my Libronix (Electronic Bible Library) to research the Greek, Hebrew (if need be),and consult various Commentaries to gain better perspective; Lastly, as you may well realize, this is a public Forum and as such all of our posts are open to scrutiny by our peers. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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644 | during the 3 days? | Matthew | BradK | 195367 | ||
Hello michael, I think we need to be careful about offering speculative answers, my friend. 3 Points: 1. Matt 12:40 in no way supports this false teaching that Jesus went to or was in hell. This is more founded in WOF heresy. Spurgeon make no note of this in his commentary on Matthew. The Commentary Critical says this: "so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth—This was the second public announcement of His resurrection three days after His death. (For the first, see Jn 2:19). Jonah’s case was analogous to this. as being a signal judgment of God; reversed in three days; and followed by a glorious mission to the Gentiles. The expression “in the heart of the earth,” suggested by the expression of Jonah with respect to the sea (Jon 2:3, in the Septuagint), means simply the grave, but this considered as the most emphatic expression of real and total entombment. The period during which He was to lie in the grave is here expressed in round numbers, according to the Jewish way of speaking, which was to regard any part of a day, however small, included within a period of days, as a full day. (See 1Sa 30:12, 13; Es 4:16; 5:1; 1Sa 30:12, 13, Mt 27:63, 64,)" 2. What evidence is there that Jesus is the one referred to here in Rev. 9:1? I see none. Though the refernce to star is most likely to a person - because of "he" in verse 2 and "king" in verse 11, the star is most likely representinf Satan cast out of heaven at the beginning of the Great tribulation (Rev. 12:9); 3. That He preached to souls in hell (1 Pet. 3:19-20), is anything but conclusive! This passage is difficult at best and there are many varied views as to what it means- yours offered being one of them! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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645 | Theology of Glory versus the Cross | 2 Tim 3:13 | BradK | 195169 | ||
Hello Jesusman, May I add some perspective to your question? While there's nothing inherently wrong with trying to motivate people, the role of a pastor/teacher is to preach the gospel! (Rom. 1:16,2 Tim 4:2) 1. You may read the entire interview Osteen did with Larry King on "Larry King Live" at www.forgottenword.org. I think the conclusions are obvious- but you may draw your own; 2. As part of a business project about 3 years ago, I purchased Osteens' Best Seller- "Your Best Life Now". I read it with an open mind. (Now I have read most if not all of the classic "success principle books"). About Two-Thirds of the way through, I had to put it down. Why? Because he went beyond just teaching basic human "success principles" into stating things using scripture that were patently false! Not open to interpretation, but using eisegesis and poor interpretive skills to draw false conclusions! 3. If you watch his weekly program, it should be further obvious that what he teaches is about as foreign to sound biblical doctrine as it gets- historically and otherwise! Not said lightly, but the content of his teaching has be very accurately termed "cotton candy"! There is absolutley no major doctrines taught, nor is there any relation to show mans' sinfulness and need of a Savior. If man does not know that he is truly a sinner in need of salvation, what is he responding to? His message is man-centered to the core and falls under the "seeker-friendly"and "marketing oriented" approach to church. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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646 | Theology of Glory versus the Cross | 2 Tim 3:13 | BradK | 195159 | ||
Hi Doc, A BIG amen to that! It is truly amazing that "motivational words" are accepted and pass for the Word of God. They are a cheap substitute! Paul says: "and my message and my preaching were not in persuasive words of wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power, so that your faith would not rest on the wisdom of men, but on the power of God" (1 Cor. 2:3-4 NASB) As I've said before if Heb 4:12 is true-"... the word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing as far as the division of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and able to judge the thoughts and intentions of the heart'- then pray tell how mere human wisdom can change the heart and mind? Thanks for sharing. BradK |
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647 | Noah,the eighth? | Gen 5:32 | BradK | 195157 | ||
Hi Cheri, We know from Gen 7:1 that, "...the LORD said to Noah, "Enter the ark, you and all your household, for you alone I have seen to be righteous before Me in this time." Also, we have Gen. 7:7- "Then Noah and his sons and his wife and his sons' wives with him entered the ark because of the water of the flood.(NASB)" Finally, 2 Pet. 2:5- "and did not spare the ancient world, but preserved Noah, a preacher of righteousness, with seven others, when He brought a flood upon the world of the ungodly;(NASB)" So, we can deduce that Noah, his sons, Japeth, Shem , and Ham each having a wife would make 8! I hope this helps, BradK |
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648 | Definition of "Perfect Will of God" | Ps 115:3 | BradK | 195110 | ||
Hello Lookin..., Let me address the first point due to time. The word for 'perfect' is telios (Gr.)and it is used some 19 times in the NT. Along with "perfect", it's meaning also conveys the idea of 'brought to it's end, finished',and 'wanting nothing neccesary to completeness'. Wuest translates the passage this way: "And stop assuming an outward expression that does not come from within you and is not representative of what you are in your inner being, but is patterned after this age; but change your outward expression to one that comes from within and is representative of your inner being, by the renewing of your mind, resulting in your putting to the test what is the will of God, the good and well-pleasing, and complete will, and having found that it meets specifications, placing your approval upon it." [Kenneth S. Wuest, Wuest's Word Studies from the Greek New Testament] Marvin Vincent says of this passage, "That good and acceptable and perfect will. Better to render the three adjectives as appositional. “May prove what is the will of God, what is good,” etc. The other rendering compels us to take well-pleasing in the sense of agreeable to men." [Marvin Richardson Vincent, Word Studies in the New Testament] Finally, the Commentary Critical offers this insight: "and perfect, will of God—We prefer this rendering (with Calvin) to that which many able critics [Tholuck, Meyer, De Wette, Fritzsche, Philippi, Alford, Hodge] adopt—“that ye may prove,” or “discern the will of God, [even] what is good, and acceptable, and perfect.” God’s will is “good,” as it demands only what is essentially and unchangeably good (Ro 7:10); it is “well pleasing,” in contrast with all that is arbitrary, as demanding only what God has eternal complacency in (compare Mic 6:8, with Je 9:24); and it is “perfect,” as it required nothing else than the perfection of God’s reasonable creature, who, in proportion as he attains to it, reflects God’s own perfection. Such then is the great general duty of the redeemed—self-consecration, in our whole spirit and soul and body to Him who hath called us into the fellowship of His Son Jesus Christ. Next follow specific duties, chiefly social; beginning with Humility, the chiefest of all the graces—but here with special reference to spiritual gifts." [Robert Jamieson, A. R. Fausset, A. R. Fausset et al., A Commentary, Critical and Explanatory] I trust this will add some understanding to your question. BradK |
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649 | Definition of "Perfect Will of God" | Ps 115:3 | BradK | 195094 | ||
Hello Lookn..., Well, let's take a look at a scriptural definition. I would think Rom. 12:1-2 pretty well defines the meaning: Rom 12:1- Therefore I urge you, brethren, by the mercies of God, to present your bodies a living and holy sacrifice, acceptable to God, which is your spiritual service of worship. Rom 12:2- And do not be conformed to this world, but be transformed by the renewing of your mind, so that you may prove what the will of God is, that which is good and acceptable and perfect. I trust this will help, BradK |
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650 | Can prayer change perfect will of God? | Ps 115:3 | BradK | 195047 | ||
Part 2- In regard to prayer and it's purpose, I really like- and it's one of my favorite quotes- what Oswald Chambers says in the first chapter of his book, "If Ye Ask": "Prayer is an interruption to personal ambition, and no man who is busy has time to pray. What will suffer is the life of God in him, which is nourished not by food but by prayer. If we look on prayer as a means of developing ourselves, there is nothing in it at all, nor do we find that idea of prayer in the Bible. Prayer is other than meditation; it is that which develops the life of God in us. When a man is born from above, the life of the Son of God begins in him, and he can either starve that life or nourish it. Prayer is the way the life of God is nourished. Our Lord nourished the life of God in Him by prayer; He was continually in contact with His Father. We generally look upon prayer as a means of getting things for ourselves, whereas the Bible idea of prayer is that God’s holiness and God’s purpose and God’s wise order may be brought about, irrespective of who comes or who goes. Our ordinary views of prayer are not found in the New Testament. When a man is in real distress he prays without reasoning; he does not think things out, he simply spurts it out—“Then they cried unto the Lord in their trouble, and He saved them out of their distresses.” When we get into a tight place our logic goes to the winds, and we work from the implicit part of ourselves. “Your Father knoweth what things ye have need of, before ye ask Him.” Then why ask? Very evidently our ideas about prayer and Jesus Christ’s are not the same. Prayer to Him is not a means of getting things from God, but in order that we may get to know God. Prayer, that is, is not to be used as the petted privilege of a spoiled child seeking for ideal conditions in which to indulge his spiritual propensities ad lib.; the purpose of prayer is to reveal the Presence of God, equally present at all times and in every condition. A man may say, “Well, if the Almighty has decreed things, why need I pray? If He has made up His mind, what is the use of me thinking I can alter His mind by prayer?” We must remember that there is a difference between God’s order and God’s permissive will. God’s order reveals His character; His permissive will applies to what He permits. For instance, it is God’s order that there should be no sin, no suffering, no sickness, no limitation and no death; His permissive will is all these things. God has so arranged matters that we are born into His permissive will, and we have to get at His order by an effort of our own, viz., by prayer. To be children of God, according to the New Testament, does not mean that we are creatures of God only, but that we grow into a likeness to God by our own moral character." [Oswald Chambers, If Ye Shall Ask]BradK |
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651 | Can prayer change perfect will of God? | Ps 115:3 | BradK | 195046 | ||
Hi Cheri, I've got a bit of time on my lunch/errand break:-) Let's go back to the original question. Keep in mind that God speak through the use of anthropomorphisms (language we can understand) to communicate Himself to us. Scripture cannot contradict scripture either. Scripture is clear that God is both Sovereign and Immutable in His attribures (among others- Ps. 115:3, Mal. 3:6, Heb.13:8)). If this is so, can the creation change the Creator? Is this completely logical if He is, in fact God? Can we, through prayer, alter the Almighty Sovereign in His will and actions? Think about this and it's ultimate ramification if this is so! A.W. Pink wrote this on Immutability: "God is immutable in His counsel. His will never varies. Perhaps some are ready to object that we ought to read the following: "And it repented the Lord that He had made man" (Gen. 6:6). Our first reply is, Then do the Scriptures contradict themselves? No, that cannot be. Numbers 23:19 is plain enough: "God is not a man, that He should lie; neither the son of man, that He should repent." So also in 1 Samuel 15:19, "The strength of Israel will not lie nor repent: for He is not a man, that He should repent." The explanation is very simple. When speaking of Himself. God frequently accommodates His language to our limited capacities. He describes Himself as clothed with bodily members, as eyes, ears, hands, etc. He speaks of Himself as "waking" (Ps. 78:65), as "rising early" (Jer. 7:13); yet He neither slumbers nor sleeps. When He institutes a change in His dealings with men, He describes His course of conduct as "repenting." Yes, God is immutable in His counsel. "The gifts and calling of God are without repentance" (Rom. 11:29). It must be so, for "He is in one mind, and who can turn Him? and what His soul desireth, even that He doeth" (Job 23:13). Change and decay in all around we see, may He who changeth not abide with thee. God’s purpose never alters. One of two things causes a man to change his mind and reverse his plans: want of foresight to anticipate everything, or lack of power to execute them. But as God is both omniscient and omnipotent there is never any need for Him to revise His decrees. No. "The counsel of the Lord standeth forever, the thoughts of His heart to all generations" (Ps. 33:11). Therefore do we read of "the immutability of His counsel" (Heb. 6:17)." [AW Pink- The Attributes of God] I hope this helps, BradK |
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652 | Can prayer change perfect will of God? | Ps 115:3 | BradK | 195032 | ||
Hi Cheri, Time only permits me to answer in part. Hopefully someone else can "fill in the gaps". I think C.H. Spurgeon stated it about as well as anything I've read on the Immutability of God (Sermon 1). He states in part that God is immutable: 1. In His essence; 2. In His attributes; 3. In His plans; 4. in His promises Regarding His plans, Spurgeon said: "Then again, God changes not in his plans. That man began to build, but was not able to finish, and therefore he changed his plan, as every wise man would do in such a case- he built upon a smaller foundation and commenced again. But has it ever been said that God began to build but was not able to finish? Nay. When he hath boundless stores at his command, and when his own right hand would create worlds as numerous as drops of morning dew, shall he ever stay because he has not power? and reverse, or alter, or disarrange his plan, because he cannot carry it out? “But,” say some, “perhaps God never had a plan.” Do you think God is more foolish than yourself then, sir? Do you go to work without a plan? “No,” say you, “I have always a scheme.” So has God. Every man has his plan, and God has a plan too. God is a mastermind; he arranged everything in his gigantic intellect long before he did it and once having settled it, mark you, he never alters it. “This shall be done,” saith he, and the iron hand of destiny marks it down, and it is brought to pass. “This is my purpose,” and it stands, nor can earth or hell alter it. “This is my decree,” saith he, promulgate it angels- rend it down from the gate of heaven ye devils; but ye cannot alter the decree; it shall be done. God altereth not his plans; why should he? He is Almighty, and therefore can perform his pleasure. Why should he? He is the All-wise, and therefore cannot have planned wrongly. Why should he? He is the everlasting God, and therefore cannot die before his plan is accomplished. Why should he change? Ye worthless atoms of existence, ephemera of the day! ye creeping insects upon this bay-leaf of existence! ye may change your plans, but he shall never, never change his." I trust this will help in answer of your question. BradK |
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653 | is masterbation a sin | Rom 12:1 | BradK | 194910 | ||
Hello pberari, Where exactly in the text you refer to- Matt. 5:30- does Jesus speak of masturbation? The context is dealing with adultery, but mentions nothing specific. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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654 | Bye | Bible general Archive 4 | BradK | 194760 | ||
Hi Cheri, I'm glad to hear you had a change of heart! The SBF is not a bad place to hang around:-) For what it's worth, I've had my share of disappointments here on the Forum. Anyone who's been around for a while has! However, the blessings have FAR outweighed them. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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655 | does God intend for us to pay tithes | Malachi | BradK | 194701 | ||
Miller, So then, what are we talking about? I'll say this in a spirit of love. It appears to me, friend, that your only interest to date here on the SBF is to be argumentative and not have the least bit of concern about anyone else! You dispute rules of Greek grammar, principles of hermeneutics, logic, etc. and just argue incessantly about every topic. Are you really that knowledgeable? Is that what you want? Miller, this Forum has been around for almost 7 years, and I've been on it for 5-plus. Do you honestly see yourself being a meaningful long-term contributor? If so how? What do you bring to the table? Am I being nitpicky?- no, but I am a stickler for being acurate and sound in what one posts! That's totally reasonable. Sound biblical posts are not guesswork or conjecture. I also know it's in keeping with the intent of this Forum to support what you (or I) say from scripture. Anything else is just opinion and won't fly very far here. I am saying all this to say this: Be concerned with what you say and how you say it to your other brothers and sisters here on the SBF. You're impacting us and those many who watch from the sidelines! This is in keeping with 1 Cor. 13:1- Love! Do you love your brothers and sisters? (Rom. 12:10,18) If you haven't done so already, feel free to read my User Profile. You'll get a better picture of who I am and what I belive:-) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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656 | Are there any true prophets/prophetss' t | Eph 4:11 | BradK | 194692 | ||
Wow, miller your ignorance of Greek grammar is only exceeded by your silliness! Stop playing games and stick with the the study of scripture. You do not know what you're saying! BradK |
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657 | does God intend for us to pay tithes | Malachi | BradK | 194691 | ||
Miller, The term "seed faith" is not found anywhere in scripture! If you can demonstrate otherwise, do so. If not, let's cease this endless speculative nonsense:-) BradK |
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658 | does God intend for us to pay tithes | Malachi | BradK | 194657 | ||
Miller, The term "seed-faith" is rooted in WOF nonsense! It is not found nor taught in scripture! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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659 | Are there any true prophets/prophetss' t | Eph 4:11 | BradK | 194656 | ||
Miller, While we can all agree that Jesus has obviously not returned, the question is- to what does the coming of that which is perfect, completed and accomplished refer? There has been a great deal of speculation regarding the meaning of this verse. I've heard it refers to the completion of the NT Canon, Christ, and even Love. However, the noun which is rendered "perfect" in 13:10 is 'to telieon' (Gr.). In Greek grammar, the noun must agree in gender with that to which it refers. Since "perfect" is in the neuter gender, it must have a corresponding agreement to the object referred. 'Jesus' is in the masculine gender and would thereby not agree! Grammatically, that's probably not the answer! My best, reasoned asnwer is that no one really seems to know what the "perfect" is! "...But then I shall know even as I have been known" (Vs. 12) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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660 | what is the Gospel of God means in Roman | Rom 14:17 | BradK | 194566 | ||
Hello TLAVISTA, You responded to me and not gb in your reply! Sorry:-) You need to click on and reply to the specific post in order for that indiviual to receive a reply. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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