Results 201 - 220 of 283
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: kalos Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
201 | Will we recognize loved ones in heaven? | 1 Cor 13:12 | kalos | 223 | ||
" . . . now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known." (1 Cor 13:12b) Will we recognize and be reunited with our loved ones in heaven? | ||||||
202 | "women keep silent in the churches" | 1 Cor 14:34 | kalos | 58819 | ||
"women keep silent in the churches" 1 Cor 14:34,35 'The principle of women not speaking in church services is universal; this applies to all the churches, not just locally, geographically, or culturally. The context in this verse concerns prophecy, but includes the general theme of the chapter, i.e., tongues. Rather than leading, they are to be submissive as God's Word makes clear. 'It is not coincidental that many modern churches that have tongues-speaking and claim gifts of healings and miracles also permit women to lead worship, preach, and teach. Women may be gifted teachers, but they are not permitted by God "to speak" in churches. In fact, for them to do so is "shameful," meaning "disgraceful." Apparently, certain women were out of order in disruptively asking questions publicly in the chaotic services.' (Source of quote available upon emailed request.) It should come as no surprise that the same individual(s) who reject(s) Biblical teaching on church discipline also reject(s) Biblical teaching on church order. |
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203 | ... | 1 Cor 15:45 | kalos | 61686 | ||
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204 | Does anyone remember this verse? | 1 Cor 16:14 | kalos | 1553 | ||
To whom it may concern: "Let all that ye do be done in love." 1 Cor 16:14 American Standard Version (ASV 1901) |
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205 | Examine yourselves! | 2 Cor 13:5 | kalos | 7306 | ||
What kind of things do and do not prove the genuineness of saving faith? This question is not about judging others. It is about testing OURSELVES to see if WE are in the faith. It is about examining OURSELVES, not others. |
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206 | Saved or Self-Deceived? | 2 Cor 13:5 | kalos | 8246 | ||
Saved or Self-Deceived? Heard on Christian radio. Subject: people who *might* be deceived by thinking they are saved and on their way to heaven when, in fact, they are not. "Look for people who always seem stuck on one over-emphasized point of theology. This is the person who bangs the proverbial drum for his own little area. Some crazy quirk. And it usually is not some great divine insight. They'd like you to think they're so close to God that they have a great divine insight that no one else has. The fact of the matter is they're seeking a platform for the feeding of their ego. Watch for people with a lack of balance." |
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207 | Bible says WHAT is proof of saving faith | 2 Cor 13:5 | kalos | 8296 | ||
AMENDED QUESTION: *According to the Scriptures*, what kind of things do and do not prove the genuineness of saving faith? I have so far received many, many good, thoughtful replies to the original question. After posting it, I later amended the original question to phrase it more accurately and more specifically. I repost the amended question here in hopes that people will notice what I was really getting at. |
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208 | Oneness and the word "person" | 2 Cor 13:14 | kalos | 112640 | ||
Oneness and the word "person" ' Oneness theology denies the Trinity doctrine and claims that there is one person in the Godhead who has manifested himself in three different forms: the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. These "forms" are not three separate persons, but one person who occupied consecutive modes. The Trinity, on the other hand, is the teaching that there is one God who exists in three separate, simultaneous, persons. Please note, though, this is not saying there are three gods. ' In defending the doctrine of the Trinity and in examining the Oneness doctrine regarding the Godhead, it is first necessary to define the terms that are used. Since the Trinity doctrine states there are three persons in one God, and Oneness Pentecostal theology states there is only one person, we first need to know what a "person" is before we try to discover whether or not God is three persons or one. Therefore, what qualifies someone as having "personhood"? ' I offer the following analysis as an attempt to adequately define personhood. After the outline, I will attempt to show that the definition and/or characteristics of personhood can be applied to both the Father and the Son in a context that shows they both existed as persons at the same time, thereby proving Oneness theology is incorrect. 'What are the qualities and attributes of being a person? 'A person exists and has identity. 'A person is aware of his own existence and identity. 'This precludes the condition of being unconscious. 'A self aware person will use such a statement as "I am", "me", "mine", etc. 'A person can recognize the existence of other persons. 'This is true provided there were other persons around him or her. 'Such recognition would include the use of such statements as "you are", "you", "yours", etc. 'A person possesses a will. 'A will is the capability of conscious choice, decision, intention, desire, and or purpose. 'A single person cannot have two separate and distinct wills at the same time on the exact same subject. 'Regarding the exact same subject, a person can desire/will one thing at one moment and another at a different moment. 'Separate and simultaneous wills imply separate and simultaneous persons. 'A person has the ability to communicate -- under normal conditions. 'Persons do not need to have bodies. 'God the Father possesses personhood without a body, as do the angels. 'Biblically speaking, upon death we are "absent from the body and home with the Lord" (2 Cor. 5:8). ' God qualifies as having personhood in that He exists, is self aware, has identity, uses terms such as "Me", "I AM", "My", and possesses a will. ' The question now becomes whether or not there are more than one "persons" in the Godhead. '"Let this cup pass from Me." '"And he was withdrawn from them about a stone’s cast, and kneeled down, and prayed, 42Saying, 'Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me: nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done'" (Luke 22:42). '"And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, 'O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt'" (Matt. 26:39). ' In both Luke 22:42 and Matt. 26:39 (which are parallel passages), the context is Jesus in the Garden of Gethsemane, right before His betrayal. He was praying to the Father about the ordeal He was about to undergo. Several points are worth bringing out here. ' First, in this passage, Jesus addresses the Father. He says, "Oh my Father..." Note that Jesus says "my" and "Father." These two words designate a "me and you" relationship. ' Second, "If it be possible" is Jesus expressing a desire, a hope. What is that hope or desire? It is that "this cup pass from me." The cup Jesus is speaking of is the immanent ordeal of betrayal, scourging, and crucifixion. Jesus did not want to go through this. He was expressing His desire. It was His will not to undergo the severe ordeal ahead of Him. If this was not so, He would not have expressed the desire to have the cup pass from Him. ' Third, in Matt. 26:39, Jesus says, "Nevertheless., not my will, but thine, be done." In Luke 22:42 he says, "Nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt." With this, Jesus is expressing His will and contrasting it to the will of the Father. Yet, He is stating that even though He does not want to undergo what lay ahead, "Nevertheless," He would submit to the will of the Father. ' This shows that the person of Jesus had a separate and different will than the Father. Since we have two separate simultaneous wills, we have two separate and simultaneous persons and Oneness Pentecostal theology is incorrect.' ____________________ (www.carm.org) 2cor1314 |
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209 | The Trinity in Matthew | 2 Cor 13:14 | kalos | 112642 | ||
The Trinity in Matthew Matthew 3:16-17 (ESV) And when Jesus was baptized, immediately he went up from the water, and behold, the heavens were opened to him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and coming to rest on him; [17] and behold, a voice from heaven said, "This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased." Matthew 12:18 (ESV) "Behold, my servant whom I have chosen, my beloved with whom my soul is well pleased. I will put my Spirit upon him, and he will proclaim justice to the Gentiles. Matthew 12:28 (ESV) But if it is by the Spirit of God that I cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come upon you. Matthew 22:43-44 (ESV) He said to them, "How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord, saying, [44] " 'The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet'? Matthew 28:19 (ESV) Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 2cor1314 |
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210 | The Trinity in John 14:11-26 (KJV) | 2 Cor 13:14 | kalos | 112646 | ||
The Trinity in John 14:11-26 (KJV) Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake. [12] Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father. [13] And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. [14] If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it. [15] If ye love me, keep my commandments. [16] And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; [17] Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you. [18] I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you. [19] Yet a little while, and the world seeth me no more; but ye see me: because I live, ye shall live also. [20] At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you. [21] He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him. [22] Judas saith unto him, not Iscariot, Lord, how is it that thou wilt manifest thyself unto us, and not unto the world? [23] Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him. [24] He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me. [25] These things have I spoken unto you, being yet present with you. [26] But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you. 2cor1314 |
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211 | Tongues a necessary sign of salvation? | 2 Cor 13:14 | kalos | 112721 | ||
Is speaking in tongues a necessary sign of salvation? ' The Oneness Pentecostal people teach that speaking in tongues is a necessary manifestation of the Holy Spirit and without it a person is not truly saved.1 It is so important to them that one ex-oneness person told me that her church had altar calls for people to come up and receive the gift of the Holy Spirit so they could speak in tongues. She said she never saw an altar call for people to come up and receive Jesus as savior. But, this is only one example and may not be typical. ' We see in Acts that many people who became Christians immediately spoke in tongues (Acts 2:4; 10:46; 19:6). But is it a necessary sign of salvation? No. It isn't. Consider the following verses in 1 Cor. 12. '1 Cor. 12:7-11, "But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal. 8For to one is given by the Spirit the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit; 9 To another faith by the same Spirit; to another the gifts of healing by the same Spirit; 10 To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues. 11But all these worketh that one and the selfsame Spirit, dividing to every man severally as he will." '1 Cor. 12:29-30, "Are all apostles? are all prophets? are all teachers? are all workers of miracles? 30Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret?" ' We can see that the Holy Spirit gives gifts as He desires. He distributes them upon His people in the church as He wills (1 Cor. 12:11). It states in 1 Cor. 12:7-11 that different people have different gifts and we see in verses 29-31 that not all speak in tongues. Now, the Oneness person will state that all are supposed to speak in tongues, but that not all do. They maintain that speaking in tongues is a necessary sign gift of true salvation and that a true believer will speak in tongues. But, that is not what the text says. ' Paul asks the questions: Are all apostles? No. Are all prophets? No. Are all teachers? No. In other words, within the body of Christ, different people are called by God to have different gifts. If someone states that all are supposed to speak in tongues, but that not all do, then are all supposed to be apostles as well but not all are? Are all called to be prophets? Are all called to be teachers? No. Likewise, not all are called by God to speak in tongues. ' It is simple. Not all speak in tongues because God doesn't give the gift to everyone. Speaking in tongues is not the sign of salvation, but a sign. If anything, the fruit of the indwelling Spirit of God is listed in Gal. 5:22-23 is the sign of salvation. I would ask the Oneness person if the following fruit are what the true signs of salvation in his or her life rather than speaking in tongues: '"But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, 23gentleness, self-control; against such things there is no law" (Gal. 5:22-23). ' So, again I ask. What is the biblical sign of salvation, tongues or the fruit of the Spirit? _____________ '1. This paper is not dealing with the issue of whether or not the charismatic gifts are still in operation, but will assume, for this paper that they are.' (www.carm.org) 2cor1314 |
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212 | Two wills on same subject at same time? | 2 Cor 13:14 | kalos | 112781 | ||
Two wills on same subject at same time? Oneness position...a serious problem ____________________ "If it was the flesh side of Jesus speaking to the divine side of Jesus in heaven, then that denies the true incarnation of God in Christ and invalidates the atonement." "The problem with the oneness position is serious and the fact that Jesus' will was separate from the Father's demonstrates that the Father and the Son are different persons within the Godhead." ____________________ ' Oneness theology teaches that there is only one person in the Godhead whose name is Jesus. Jesus is the Father and the Holy Spirit. Regarding His incarnation, oneness people say that He was in heaven at the same time that He was on earth. Logically this would mean that even though Jesus was both in heaven and on earth, He was still one person, not three as the Trinity position holds. Unfortunately, the oneness position presents a serious problem. ' In the Garden of Gethsemane (Luke 22:42), Jesus prayed to the Father saying, "Father, if You are willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Yours be done." See also, ""And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, 'O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt'" (Matt. 26:39). ' We have two wills, one of the son, one of the Father, at the same time. If this is so, then how can one person have two separate and opposing wills on the same subject at the same time? ' The response is generally that Jesus was fully a man and that in his humanity he was not the everlasting Father. But if this is so, then what was Jesus if not God incarnate? If He is not fully God incarnate, then the atonement is void since it isn't God making the sacrifice but a mere man. ' Sometimes oneness people say that Jesus had another existence outside His existence as a man because he also was existing as the Father. But this implies that there are two beings since each has its own existence different than the other. Furthermore, the Oneness position would have a will of the Father and the Son at the same time that are in opposition to each other -- yet they are one person! If the oneness people state that Jesus' flesh was at odds with His own presence as the Father in heaven, then again we have no true incarnation. ' The problem with the oneness position is serious and the fact that Jesus' will was separate from the Father's demonstrates that the Father and the Son are different persons within the Godhead. The oneness people are very wrong. 'Questions: '1. If it was the flesh side of Jesus speaking to the divine side of Jesus in heaven, then that denies the true incarnation of God in Christ and invalidates the atonement.' (www.carm.org) 2cor1314 |
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213 | Who did Jesus pray to? | 2 Cor 13:14 | kalos | 112864 | ||
Who did Jesus pray to? ' Oneness theology states that the Father was in the Son and that the person of Jesus was also the person of the Father. Of course, when we see instances in the Bible where Jesus prays to the Father, we naturally wonder how this can be if they are the same person. But, according to Oneness theology, Jesus was praying to the Father, the true divinity, though it was Jesus the man who was praying. But, how can this be? Was Jesus praying to Himself (since God is only one person) and making it appear that He was praying to someone else? ' Oneness theology correctly states that Jesus has two natures. He was both God and man while He walked this earth.1 But it states that the human part of Jesus was praying to the divine essence of God as the Father. What they do is divide Jesus into two parts and have the human nature address the divine nature. ' The problem with this is that it threatens the incarnation of the Word made flesh as a complete and single person. Jesus was both God and man in one person. He had a will. He ate. He slept, etc. He was a man. He needed to be a human in order to bear the sins of people. He needed to be God in order to offer a sacrifice to God the Father sufficient to cleanse us of our sins. No mere man could do this. But the fact is, Jesus was one person -- and still is.2 Jesus was both God and man at the same time in the form of a single person. ' The Oneness explanation risks the error of Nestorianism which stated that Jesus was two separate persons: a human person and a divine person in the form of one man. No where in the Bible does it state that Jesus was two persons. Rather, we find scriptures where Jesus refers to Himself as "I" and "Me" and "mine" not "us" or "our." The Oneness position is simply in error. ' Jesus was not praying to Himself. We see in Scripture Jesus praying to the Father (John 17). We see Him addressing another person who is called God. We see Jesus saying, "Not my will, but your will be done" (Luke 22:42) when He addressed God the Father. In other words, they had separate wills -- at the same time. He was not praying to Himself, or an extension of Himself, of a part of Himself. He was praying to the person of the Father. ' Furthermore, according to Oneness theology, Jesus would have had to exist at the same time as the Father if Jesus the man was praying to the Father. If this is so and Jesus was addressing the Father, then we have two simultaneous persons. But in Oneness theology, this is a problem since God is only one person who occupies consecutive modes. How then could the "mode" of the Father and the "mode" of the Son be in existence at the same time if Oneness theology is correct? They cannot, which is another reason why Oneness theology is wrong. ____________________ '1. Actually, Jesus is still God and man. Col. 2:9 states that in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily. Note, the verse says "dwells", not dwelt. Dwells is in the present tense, not the past. Therefore, in Jesus, right now, dwells the fullness of the Godhead. '2. See my article Oneness and the word "person" that deals with the nature of personhood. '3. This heresy is attributed to Nestorius who was a preacher at Antioch and the Bishop of Constantinople around 428 A.D. However, Nestorius did not preach that Jesus was two persons in one body, but his name has become attached to this error.' (www.carm.org) 2cor1314 |
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214 | Is "Jesus Only" belief true or false? | 2 Cor 13:14 | kalos | 113057 | ||
"Jesus Only" and United Apostolic Church 'Trinity ' The word "trinity" is not found in the Bible. Nevertheless, it is a word used to describe one fact the Bible teaches about God: Our God is a Trinity. This means there are three persons in one God, not three Gods. The persons are known as the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit and they have all always existed as three separate persons. The person of the Father is not the same person as the Son. The person of the Son is not the same person as the Holy Spirit. The person of the Holy Spirit is not the same person as the Father. If you take away any one, there is no God. God has always been a trinity from all eternity: "From everlasting to everlasting, Thou art God" (Psalm 90:2). ' God is not one person who took three forms, i.e., the Father who became the Son, who then became the Holy Spirit. This belief is known today as the "Jesus Only Movement". It is taught by the United Apostolic and United Pentecostal churches, and is an incorrect teaching. ' Nor is God only one person as the Jehovah's Witnesses, the Way International, and the Christadelphians teach (These groups are classified as non-Christian cults). For proof that there is more than one person in the Godhead, see the Plurality Study [at www.carm.org]. ' The Bible says there is only one God. Yet, it says Jesus is God (John 1:1,14); it says the Father is God (Phil. 1:2); and it says the Holy Spirit is God (Acts 5:3-4). Since the Son speaks to the Father, they are separate persons. Since the Holy Spirit speaks also (Acts 13:2), He is a separate person. There is one God who exists in three persons.' ____________________ (www.carm.org/dictionary/dic_t.htm) 2cor13:14 |
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215 | Will they ever get it right? | 2 Cor 13:14 | kalos | 113098 | ||
Will they ever get it right? 'Jesus' resurrection and ascension ' One of the problems with oneness theology is in dealing with the resurrection of Jesus. Oneness Pentecostal theology states that Jesus had two natures while he was walking the earth. That is, he was both God and man. This is correct theology in so far as it states that within the one person of the Son, there are two natures: God and man. But it also states that God is now in the "form" of the Holy Spirit. What happened to Jesus' body after the ascension? Where is it? Is it alive? Is it in a coma? Was it dissolved? Does it still exist? Is Jesus still a person? If so, how can Jesus, the person with flesh and bones, also be the Holy Spirit? ' In Trinitarian theology the second person of the Trinity became flesh (John 1:1, 14). In other words, according to Phil. 2:5-8, Jesus added to himself human nature. Likewise in Col. 2:9 it states, "For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily." 1 Tim. 2:5 says that "there is one mediator between God and man, the man Christ Jesus." We know that Jesus rose from the dead in the same body He died in since He prophesied He would raise His body (John 2:19-21); He retained the scars of His ordeal after the resurrection (John 20:27); and He was seen as a man after the resurrection (Luke 24:39). '"Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have" (Luke 24:39). '"Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing" (John 20:27). ' As you can see from the above verses, Jesus retained His physical nature after His resurrection -- along with His scars. This is why it says in Col. 2:9 that in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily. Notice that the verb "dwells" is in the present tense. That is, right now Jesus has a body of flesh and bones. He is physical. He is in heaven. He is a man, the Godman. ' Nevertheless, some deny Jesus' resurrection by stating that the Bible says flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God and therefore Jesus did not rise in the same body he died in. But, we need to realize that the Bible says, "flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God" (1 Cor. 15:50), not flesh and bones as Jesus said He had (Luke 24:39). Is this important? Yes it is. Jesus’ blood was the sacrifice that cleanses us from sin (Lev. 17:11; Heb. 9:22). I suspect that Jesus' resurrected body did not have any blood in it. It was shed from His body on the cross. 'Jesus' Ascension and Return ' The Bible tells us that Jesus ascended into the sky (Acts 1:9-11). When He did this He was still in physical form as I've demonstrated above. In addition, the Bible tells us that Jesus will return in the same manner. '"And when he had spoken these things, while they beheld, he was taken up; and a cloud received him out of their sight. 10And while they looked stedfastly toward heaven as he went up, behold, two men stood by them in white apparel; 11Which also said, Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven" (Acts 1:9-11). ' Since the Bible teaches us that Jesus is in bodily form now (Col. 2:9), then how does the Oneness Pentecostal person maintain that God is in the form of the Holy Spirit? Also, when Jesus returns, will He return in His body? Will God's form then revert to the form of the Son at His return according to Oneness? ' I do not think Oneness Pentecostal theology is correct for many reasons. But here, with this issue of Jesus' resurrection and ascension, I see their theology denying the incarnation of God in flesh right now. After all, it says in Col. 2:9 that Jesus is in bodily form now. Oneness denies that since God, according to its theology, is now supposed to be in the form of the Holy Spirit.' ____________________ www.carm.org 2cor1314 |
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216 | The Trinity in John | 2 Cor 13:14 | kalos | 113153 | ||
The Trinity in John John 1:33-34 (ESV) I myself did not know him, but he who sent me to baptize with water said to me, 'He on whom you see the Spirit descend and remain, this is he who baptizes with the Holy Spirit.' [34] And I have seen and have borne witness that this is the Son of God." John 3:34-35 (ESV) For he whom God has sent utters the words of God, for he gives the Spirit without measure. [35] The Father loves the Son and has given all things into his hand. John 15:26 (ESV) "But when the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth, who proceeds from the Father, he will bear witness about me. John 16:7-15 (ESV) Nevertheless, I tell you the truth: it is to your advantage that I go away, for if I do not go away, the Helper will not come to you. But if I go, I will send him to you. [8] And when he comes, he will convict the world concerning sin and righteousness and judgment: [9] concerning sin, because they do not believe in me; [10] concerning righteousness, because I go to the Father, and you will see me no longer; [11] concerning judgment, because the ruler of this world is judged. [12] "I still have many things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now. [13] When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth, for he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things that are to come. [14] He will glorify me, for he will take what is mine and declare it to you. [15] All that the Father has is mine; therefore I said that he will take what is mine and declare it to you. John 20:21-22 (ESV) Jesus said to them again, "Peace be with you. As the Father has sent me, even so I am sending you." [22] And when he had said this, he breathed on them and said to them, "Receive the Holy Spirit. 2cor1314 |
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217 | For or against? | Gal 3:28 | kalos | 3495 | ||
Cyberbob writes: "Aimee Semple MacPherson started the foursquare church and the first christian radio station..." It's unclear: is this statement an argument for or against women starting churches? | ||||||
218 | There is neither Jew nor Greek | Gal 3:29 | kalos | 182570 | ||
Who are the elect? Is it the Jews only or is it all believers, Jews and Gentiles alike? A Messianic believer recently told me that when the Bible speaks of "the elect" it is speaking of the Jews only. I disagree, but I need help in explaining to him why I disagree. Can anyone provide me with Bible-based information I could use to show him that the Bible term "the elect" does not apply solely to Jews? (I use the term "the Jews" instead of "Israel" because, according to my friend, it isn't even Israel who are the elect. According to him, it is only the Jews (narrowly defined by him as those who are descednants of the tribe of Judah) that are the elect.) I'm asking for this information not for the purpose of winning an argument. I merely want to be able to show my friend the truth of the matter. Whether he accepts it is up to him. Any factual, biblical information would be greatly appreciated. Thank you in advance. Grace to you, John * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * Galatians 3:26-29 NASB For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus. And if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's descendants, heirs according to promise. |
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219 | Who are "the elect"? | Gal 3:29 | kalos | 182625 | ||
Who are the elect? Is it Israel only or is it all believers, Jews and Gentiles alike? The New Testament writers frequently use the term "the elect." My question is not a general question about the theology of election or, as some call it, predestination. My question is about how the term "the elect" is used, particularly in the New Testament. Does "the elect" mean only the nation of Israel? Or does it mean the NT church, which includes both Jewish and Gentile believers? A Messianic believer recently told me that when the Bible speaks of "the elect" it is speaking of Israel only. I disagree, but I need help in explaining to him why I disagree. Can anyone provide me with Bible-based information I could use to show him that the Bible term "the elect" does not apply solely to Israel? I'm asking for this information not for the purpose of winning an argument. I merely want to be able to show my friend the truth of the matter. Any factual, biblical information would be greatly appreciated. Thank you in advance. Grace to you, John * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * Galatians 3:26-29 NASB For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus. And if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's descendants, heirs according to promise. |
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220 | When should a person leave a church? | Ephesians | kalos | 1466 | ||
When should a person leave a church? That is, when should a person stop attending a particular local church? | ||||||
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