Results 81 - 88 of 88
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: Radioman2 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
81 | Where is "backsliding" in the NT? | Rom 8:1 | Radioman2 | 77726 | ||
Can you find any form of the *word* backsliding in the NT? My question is not: Can you find the *concept* of backsliding in the NT? (The word Trinity is found nowhere in the Bible, yet the concept is Biblical. By contrast, we cannot say the word backslide is not found in the Bible. It is in the Bible! Backslide is found in the OT, but not in the New.) My question is not: CAN YOU FIND *SYNONYMS* FOR 'BACKSLIDING' IN THE NT? My question remains: Can you find any form of the *word* backsliding in the NT? Can you find the English word 'backsliding' (b-a-c-k-s-l-i-d-i-n-g) or any of its forms (e.g., backslide, backslidden, backslider) in the NT? If you can, show me the book, show me the chapter, and show me the verse where any form of the word backsliding appears in the NT. |
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82 | Failure to communicate? | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 77584 | ||
Do we have a failure to communicate? "If we may cast aside the 'norm' of immersion, what other norms may we cast aside?" "...May be used as substitutes IN EXCEPTIONAL CIRCUMSTANCES" does not equal "cast aside." Cast aside is not only an exaggeration, but also an apparently deliberate misquote of what I previously wrote. |
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83 | Only one way to baptize? | Mark 7:4 | Radioman2 | 77550 | ||
Only one way to baptize? The mode of baptism - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - "Scripture and common sense indicate that the water is not all-important and that, therefore, other modes [i.e., modes other than immersion] may be used as substitutes in exceptional circumstances." - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - "There are three modes (or methods) of water baptism used in Christian churches today: immersion (in which the person is completely submerged), affusion (that is, pouring), and aspersion (sprinkling). Evangelical Christians are divided on the question of which mode or modes are proper forms of baptism. Some Christians (typically those who believe that only believers should be baptized) think that immersion is the only valid mode, while other Christians (usually those who recognize the validity of infant baptism) consider all three modes to be acceptable. (...) "Those who believe that all three modes are valid would point out that only in the most ritualistic view of baptism can the amount of water be considered important. The immersion-only view, they say, appears absurd: What if one hair fails to be immersed? What if a finger or a hand? Where does one draw the line? But the opposing argument can be made to appear absurd also: If a small amount of water is permissible, is one drop enough? How about no water at all (not a view to be laughed away, since the "Quakers" take this exact view)? Where does one draw the line at this end? Therefore, the better approach is to realize that it is the general form of the act and the intention of those involved that matter, not the precise amount of water used. The issue is: Shall we obey the command of Christ as He intended or shall we obey the command in a way that pleases us? (...) "What shall we conclude from these observations? "It seems clear to us that immersion is the biblical norm, but that it is not an inflexible norm. That is, Scripture and common sense indicate that the water is not all-important and that, therefore, other modes may be used as substitutes in exceptional circumstances. God accepts the believer on the basis of his faith in Christ and his desire to obey Him, not on the basis of how much water covered his body when he was baptized. The doctrine that immersion is the only valid mode of baptism and that only those so baptized should be admitted into the fellowship of the Church body would, therefore, appear to be a bit extreme and not based on Scripture. The Church should welcome into its fellowship all those whom Christ has accepted (Romans 15:7, I John 1:3)." (http://www.equip.org/search/) |
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84 | What is the definition of porneia? | 1 Thess 4:3 | Radioman2 | 77316 | ||
NASB 1 Thessalonians 4:3 For this is the will of God, your sanctification; that is, that you abstain from sexual immorality; AMPLIFIED 1 Thessalonians 4:3 For this is the will of God, that you should be consecrated (separated and set apart for pure and holy living): that you should abstain and shrink from all sexual vice, srwoland: Your question: What is the biblical - New Testament definition of fornication? Answer: porneia [Strong's #4202] Definition: 1. illicit sexual intercourse a. adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism b. sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18 c. sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11 |
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85 | The choice to abstain from alcohol | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 77048 | ||
"Careful biblical interpretation, however, requires that the choice to abstain [from alcohol] be made for reasons other than the demand of the biblical pattern." __________________________ 'The term "abstinence" is often identified with the question of the use or nonuse of alcoholic beverages. The Bible consistently condemns drunkenness, but it cannot be viewed as teaching total abstinence from fermented wine. The linguistic, historical-cultural, and contextual aspects of Scripture are often abused by those who claim that the Bible requires total abstinence. The primary Hebrew terms are yayin [Iy:y], tiros [v/ryiT], and asim. All three may refer to fermented wine in a negative connotation (cf. in order Prov 23:31; Hosea 4:11; Isa 49:26) and all three refer to the expected positive use of fermented wine (yayin [Iy:y] - Lev 23:13; Num 6:20; 28:14; Deut 14:26; Psalm 104:15; Isa 55:1; Itiros [v/ryiT] - Deut 14:23; asim - Joel 3:18). All three are used interchangeably and no hard-line distinctions for a linguistic reference to unfermented as opposed to fermented wine can be sustained for any term. The Greek word oinos [oi\no"] commonly translates all three terms in the Septuagint and is the common term for wine in the Greek period and in the New Testament. Paul cites oinos [oi\no"] as a nonissue equivalent to the meat offered to idols in Romans 14:21. The less-used Greek term gleukos [gleu'ko"], "new wine, " may also mean fermented (cf. Acts 2:13). The ancient world often diluted wine with water for a more or less fermented effect, although this could be viewed as an insult (cf. Isa 1:22). 'The historical setting of Israel as one of the leading and most respected wine-producing nations in their part of the ancient world is well documented. The blessings of this product are recorded in the Bible along with the evils that come from its abuse. Wine is a major image of joy and blessing (cf. Gen 27:28; Psalm 104:14-15). The messianic era is depicted as a time of great blessing via this imagery (Joel 3:18; Amos 9:13; Zech 9:17). The destruction of wine is noted as a calamity in the life of Israel (Deut 28:30-39; Isa 62:8; 65:21; Micah 6:15; Zeph 1:13). 'Believers in any given time period or geographical location may choose total abstinence from alcoholic beverages for numerous reasons. One may use certain passages of Scripture to warn against abuse just like ancient Israel did. The abuse of strong drink has plagued all cultures and reasons to abstain abound. Careful biblical interpretation, however, requires that the choice to abstain be made for reasons other than the demand of the biblical pattern.' Gary T. Meadors Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology. Edited by Walter A. Elwell Published by Baker Books. (http://bible.crosswalk.com/Dictionaries/BakersEvangelicalDictionary/) |
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86 | Who is God over all? | Rom 9:5 | Radioman2 | 76931 | ||
"Christ, who is God over all." . Romans 9:5 NIV Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of Christ, who is God over all, forever praised! Amen. "Christ, who is God over all." . Romans 9:5 NLT Their ancestors were great people of God, and Christ himself was a Jew as far as his human nature is concerned. And he is God, who rules over everything and is worthy of eternal praise! Amen. "Christ himself was a Jew...And he is God." . Romans 9:5 HCSB The forefathers are theirs, and from them, by physical descent, came the Messiah, who is God over all, blessed forever. Amen. "Messiah, who is God over all." . Romans 9:5 NET Bible To them belong the patriarchs, and from them, by human descent, came the Christ, who is God over all, blessed forever! Amen. "Christ, who is God over all" |
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87 | He does not wish for any to perish... | 2 Pet 3:9 | Radioman2 | 76752 | ||
2 Peter 3:9 (NET Bible) The Lord is not slow concerning his promise, as some regard slowness, but is being patient toward you, because he does not wish for any[4] to perish but for all to come to repentance. Footnote 4. "He does not wish for any to perish." '...the literary context seems to be against the Arminian view, while the historical context seems to be against (one representation of) the Calvinist view. The answer to this conundrum is found in the term "wish" (a participle in Greek from the verb boulomai). It often represents a mere wish, or one's desiderative will, rather than one's resolve. Unless God's will is viewed on the two planes of his desiderative and decretive will (what he desires and what he decrees), hopeless confusion will result. The scriptures amply illustrate both that God sometimes decrees things that he does not desire and desires things that he does not decree. It is not that his will can be thwarted, nor that he has limited his sovereignty. But the mystery of God's dealings with humanity is best seen if this tension is preserved. Otherwise, either God will be perceived as good but impotent or as a sovereign taskmaster. Here the idea that God does not wish for any to perish speaks only of God's desiderative will, without comment on his decretive will.' (http://www.bible.org/cgi-bin/netbible.pl#note_3) * * * * * * * * * * * * * (Although this post is not a question, I have chosen to post it under the heading of Questions for this reason: Often a person will not respond to a Note unless it is addressed specifically to that person. However, the same person may respond to a post that is labeled as a Question. In other words, I posted this as a question in hopes that it will not be ignored or overlooked.) Radioman2 |
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88 | What is the third toe on the left foot? | Dan 2:41 | Radioman2 | 61951 | ||
In Daniel what is the meaning of the third toe on the left foot (Daniel 2:41-42) of the "single great statue" (Dan 2:31, NASB)? NASB Daniel 2:41 "In that you saw the feet and toes, partly of potter's clay and partly of iron, it will be a divided kingdom; but it will have in it the toughness of iron, inasmuch as you saw the iron mixed with common clay. |
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