Results 41 - 60 of 96
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: Lionstrong Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
41 | A silly question? | Josh 10:12 | Lionstrong | 5412 | ||
If you count me a fool, Radioman, and count my questions silly, then do as the Scriture says and give me a silly answer to this question: Why do you believe the sun and moon did not stand still? |
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42 | Is this definition unbiblical? | Josh 10:12 | Lionstrong | 6596 | ||
Is this definition unbiblical? | ||||||
43 | Sinful or Just Human? | Judg 6:27 | Lionstrong | 64656 | ||
Judg 7:9 Now the same night it came about that the LORD said to him, "Arise, go down against the camp, for I have given it into your hands. Judg 7:10 "But if you are afraid to go down, go with Purah your servant down to the camp, Judg 7:11 and you will hear what they say; and afterward your hands will be strengthened that you may go down against the camp." So he went with Purah his servant down to the outposts of the army that was in the camp. Gideon's life seems to be one characterized by fear and obedience. It is interesting that God deals with his fearfulness, but not as though Gideon's fearfulness was sinful unbelief. It may have been, but God does not seem to deal with him as if it was, but instead God is very patient with Gideon. This example of God dealing with one of his people is uplifting, but is raises a question in my mind: Whereas the fear of God is always right, is Gideon's kind of fear(s) sinful or just ordinary human weakness? (Whereas Jesus exhibited human weaknesses, fear was not one of them.) Peace, |
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44 | God's people's land? | 2 Chr 7:14 | Lionstrong | 17266 | ||
Dear Leabeater, God's Old Testament people had a land to which this verse applied, but do his New Testament people have a land? How can this verse be applied today? Peace, Lionstrong |
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45 | Seek the Lord | 2 Chr 12:14 | Lionstrong | 120355 | ||
2 Chronicles 12:14 He [King Rehoboam son of King Solomon] did evil because he did not set his heart to seek the LORD. Came across this verse in my reading today. Been on my mind all day. Two questions: 1. What does it mean to "seek the Lord?" The Amplified Bible has "inquire of, yearn for." 2. What are your thoughts on how to seek the Lord? |
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46 | Can Animals Think? | Ps 32:9 | Lionstrong | 21411 | ||
Let's move the discussion of animal rationality to a more appropriate verse. Q. 1) What does this verse mean? Q. 2) Dose it apply to horses and mules only? Peace, a.k.a. LooseCannon |
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47 | Can Animals Think? | Ps 32:9 | Lionstrong | 30734 | ||
(There goes LooseCannon again, talking about dumb animals!) Someone has said, "This verse does not refer to animals being able to think..." Read the verse, and see what it says. Apart from whatever else this verse teaches, is it true that this verse does NOT refer to animals being able to think? The verse says, "...which have no understanding..." So, what things have no understanding, according to this verse? The horse and the mule. So then, does this verse not affirm that the horse and mule have no understanding, or should this phrase be removed from Scripture as a meaningless phrase? However brief the phase may be, it is stating a truth. Horses and mules (at least) have no understanding. Now I believe this is a statement that can be applied to animals in general, but some would take a clear and literal statement and spiritualize it. Or it seems that this affirmation is being discounted because it's only a subordinate clause in a long sentence. But does it make sense to ignore an affirmation because it's contained in a subordinate clause? One would loose a lot of great truths if one ignored all the subordinate clauses in Ehp 1, because v. 1-14 is one long sentence! Peace, Lionstrong |
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48 | No Rules, Just Right! | Ps 34:8 | Lionstrong | 16712 | ||
No Rules, Just Right "O taste and see that the Lord is good; How blessed is the man who takes refuge in Him!" Ps. 34:8 Are there rules that God must keep by which he is counted good? If God had given no rules to man, the conformity to which his righteousness was determined, then nothing man did would be wrong, and everything he did would be right. Are there rules which God must keep, the conformity to which his goodness is recognized? For you consideration, Lionstrong |
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49 | No Rules, Just Right! | Ps 34:8 | Lionstrong | 16757 | ||
For the Forum's consideration: Is God good because he conforms to some set of rules? Or are there no rules for God? Example: Man's goodness is determined by the law. But if there were no law, then anything man did would be ok. Everything man did would be good and right. Now, for God, are there no rules for him so that anything he chooses to do is right, or are there rules for God to which he must conform in order to be good? Lionstrong |
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50 | No Rules, Just Right! | Ps 34:8 | Lionstrong | 16771 | ||
For the Forum's consideration: Is God good because he conforms to some set of rules? Or are there no rules for God? Example: Man's goodness is determined by the law. But if there were no law, then anything man did would be ok. Everything man did would be good and right. Now, for God, are there no rules for him so that anything he chooses to do is right, or are there rules for God to which he must conform in order to be good? Lionstrong |
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51 | The Lord is Righteous | Ps 34:8 | Lionstrong | 16861 | ||
Dear Pemican, ... Thanks for your thoughts. ... Pemican, you wrote, “The "rules", as you put it, that God follows relate to the fact that He will not and cannot violate His own essence.” And the “essence or character of God consists of,” among other things, is “His attributes of ... righteousness...” Agreed. This is what his Word affirms: Ps. 11:7 “For the Lord is righteous; He loves righteousness; The upright will behold His face.” .........¶¶ Now, for man, God gives a rule, “don’t eat the fruit of a certain tree;” or “don’t work on this day of the week. And as long as the man keeps this rule he is righteous. But if he transgresses, he has sinned and he is no longer righteous or “upright”, but unrighteous. ........... ¶¶ Now you say that God will not violate his essence, one of which is his righteousness. Is there a rule for God’s righteousness? It is not abstaining from a certain fruit or resting on a certain day of the week, is it? What is it?......... ¶¶ Thanks again for your thoughts. Peace, Lionstrong |
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52 | God and Law | Ps 34:8 | Lionstrong | 17013 | ||
Dear Chuck, ........... ¶¶ When you write, "He is good because that is his nature," do you mean that the Ten Commandments are part of who he is? The Ten Commandments are external to us, and we either conform to it or transgress. But for God, is the Ten Commandments just part of his make up? ............ ¶¶ Chuck, you write, "The law establishes man's sinfulness, shows man how far he is already from the goodness of which God is the standard." You deny that the law determines man's goodness. How does your statement NOT mean that the law is the standard of goodness, that is, how can it show us how far we are from God's goodness if it is not a standard of goodness? "...the law is good..." Rom. 7:16. ......... Peace, ....... Lionstrong |
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53 | Love God, His word, any difference? | Ps 95:10 | Lionstrong | 153260 | ||
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. This may not be a proper Study Bible Forum question for discussion, but I'll leave that up to you: What's the difference, if any, between loving God's word, the Holy Bible, and loving God? I'm of the opinion that there's none, because all we know of God is found in or "by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture." God is what His word says He is. How can one love God and hate His word. Or, conversely, how can one hate God and love His word? Further, does the word itself make a distinction between loving God and loving his word? Jesus says, "If you love me you will keep my commandments." (John 14:15) Heb 3:10 "THEREFORE I WAS ANGRY WITH THIS GENERATION, AND SAID, 'THEY ALWAYS GO ASTRAY IN THEIR HEART, AND THEY DID NOT KNOW MY WAYS'; (the writer of Hebrew citing Psalm 95:10) |
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54 | Imperatives not true or false | Ps 119:142 | Lionstrong | 58011 | ||
Here's a question that has come my mind serveral times as I read Clark and thought about logic: If imperatives are not true or false how do we understand such statements as, "Thy righteousness is an everlasting righteousness, And Thy law is truth." (Ps. 119:142) Or, Rom. 2:20, "... having in the Law the embodiment of knowledge and of the truth...." So, If the law is essentially moral imperatives, what do the Scriptures mean when it says that they are true? My thought is that the Scriptures are refering to the supporting statements that surround the imperatives. In the Decalogue itself there are declarative statements such as, "...in six days the Lord made the heavens and the earth..." or, "I am the Lord your God...." So the Law is not simply the commands, but also declarative statements given to justify the "duty" God requires of us. Yours, for obedience to God's Word Lionstrong |
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55 | Satan? | Is 14:12 | Lionstrong | 4092 | ||
How do you get Satan out of the King of Babylon? | ||||||
56 | Can God be Understood? | Jer 9:24 | Lionstrong | 229200 | ||
Can God be understood? We live in an age of irrationalism and anti-intellectualism where people--especially religeous people--believe that the most important things of life cannot be understood, that they must be embraced in a passonate irrational act of "faith." I've heard people quote verses to support that such is the God of the Bible:Is 55:8 "For My thoughts are not your thoughts, Nor are your ways My ways," declares the LORD. Is 55:9 "For as the heavens are higher than the earth, So are My ways higher than your ways And My thoughts than your thoughts. What say you? In your study of Scripture, have you come to the conclusion that God is beyond human understanding? P.S. I did a word search on this site of "know the Lord." Quite interesting. |
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57 | Satan? | Ezek 28:12 | Lionstrong | 4093 | ||
Where do you get Satan out of the king of Tyre? | ||||||
58 | If God's in Control, Why'd He say this? | Ezek 33:8 | Lionstrong | 61780 | ||
Someone has asked, "If God is in control of every atom then why would He say ”… THAT WICKED MAN SHALL DIE IN HIS INIQUITY; BUT HIS BLOOD I WILL REQUIRE AT YOUR HAND…”? The reasoning here is: since God holds men responsible for their actions, then He is not in control of nature. How in the world the one implies the other is beyond me! God is in control of nature as illustrated by the plagues on Egypt, AND He holds men responsible for their actions. "For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each one may be recompensed for his deeds in the body, according to what he has done, whether good or bad." 2 Cor 5:10 Peace, |
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59 | Light and Good Works | Matt 5:16 | Lionstrong | 8000 | ||
Our light in this context does not mean the life we live, but the truth of the Gospel in particular, and in generalthe truth of God's Word as a whole. It's only through Christ that we become sons of the Father. ........... If men don't see our good works in light of the Gospel, then they will misinterpret them, and not glorify God. They may wrongly think that we do good works not because of the saving grace of Christ, but because we're "good" people. ............. . Some how we must explain the Gospel to people in such a way that they may see our good works (which God prepared beforehand so that we would walk in them. Eph 2:10) in their proper light that credit may be giving to whom credit is due, that is, the Father. |
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60 | What are those laws? | Matt 5:17 | Lionstrong | 12389 | ||
Dear Yitzhak, What are the laws of Moses that overlap with the Spirit's laws. And what are the laws of the Spirit that do not overlap with Moses'? Peace, Lionstrong |
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