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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: smillerx Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How did this error happen! | Eph 2:10 | smillerx | 165963 | ||
If all known manuscripts have the Greek word "hina" (Strongs #2443), I guess my question really is just this: How did the "New American Standard Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, Hebrew-Aramaic and Greek Dictionaries" - Robert L. Thomas, Th.D., General Editor, Holman Bible Publishers, Copyright 1981 The Lockman Foundation, wind up with the Greek word "opheilo" (Strongs #3784) in Ephesian 2:10 ???????? I find this type of error unacceptable! |
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2 | "hina" or "opheilo" - Which is it? | Eph 2:10 | smillerx | 165945 | ||
Dear Friends in Christ: I have been studying the Word of God from my NASB Open Bible (Copyright 1977) with the associated NASB Exhaustive Concordance (Copyright 1981) since the early 80’s. I have always trusted this translation as being true to the original texts, but I recently stumbled across a discrepancy. In my Bible Ephesians 2:10 reads as follows: "For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand so that we should walk in them." My concordance indicates that the word “should” is translated from the Greek “opheilo” (Strongs #3784). I also use an electronic version of the NASB from Laridian (Copyright 2003) on my PDA. Today I noticed on my PDA that Ephesians 2:10 reads: "For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand so that we would walk in them." The subtle change from “should” to “would” piqued my interest. I assumed that the difference was the result of a minor update in the translation of the original Greek “opheilo”. But to my complete astonishment I found the Greek Concordance on my PDA indicated that the word “would” is translated from the Greek “hina” (Strongs #2443). I checked my Englishman's Greek Concordance of the New Testament by Wigram (Copyright 1979) and also found there that Ephesians 2:10 contains “hina” and not “opheilo”. All of the online concordances I checked indicated that Ephesians 2:10 contains “hina” and not “opheilo”. The online Bible as part of your study forum indicates that Ephesians 2:10 contains “hina” and not “opheilo”. Given the completely different definitions of these Greek words I am now completely confused. Perhaps some Greek manuscripts contain “hina”, while others contain “opheilo”, with the translators discretion as to which is earliest, or most valid. I am sure that the Apostle Paul only penned one of these two words, not both. If it is "hina", then what other errors might I find in my 1977 NASB? Please help clear this up for me. The Grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you, Steve Miller |
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